An RN is caring for a patient with Tuberculosis who is to receive a new prescription for Isoniazid (INH). The nurse knows that INH can cause peripheral neuropathy. To help prevent this from happening, the nurse can ask the provider for:
Phenazopyridine
Phentolamine
Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
Pyrazinamide
The Correct Answer is C
A. This medication is used primarily to relieve urinary tract discomfort and does not have any role in preventing peripheral neuropathy associated with INH. It is not relevant in this context.
B. Phentolamine is an alpha-adrenergic antagonist used to treat hypertension and manage pheochromocytoma. It has no association with preventing peripheral neuropathy related to INH and is not appropriate for this patient.
C. Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy by interfering with the metabolism of pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). Administering pyridoxine can help prevent this side effect by replenishing the vitamin and supporting nerve health.
D. Pyrazinamide is another anti-tuberculosis medication that works alongside INH. While it is effective for tuberculosis, it does not prevent peripheral neuropathy and may even have its own side effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This is the first and most critical action to take. The patient's symptoms suggest a possible transfusion reaction, which can be life-threatening. Stopping the transfusion immediately prevents further exposure to potentially harmful blood components.
B. Administering oxygen may be necessary if the patient exhibits signs of respiratory distress or hypoxia. However, this action should come after ensuring that the transfusion is stopped and the patient is stabilized, as continuing the transfusion could exacerbate the reaction.
C. While providing warmth can help alleviate chills, it is not the priority action. The patient's safety is more important, and symptoms of a transfusion reaction must be addressed first.
D. Checking the temperature can provide useful information about the patient's condition, especially if a fever is present, but it is not an immediate priority. The focus should be on stopping the transfusion and managing the acute symptoms.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Morphine is a strong opioid analgesic that is effective for managing severe pain, especially in acute situations like a vaso-occlusive crisis. Administering it intravenously allows for rapid onset of pain relief, which is critical given the severity of the patient’s symptoms. Continuous dosing (ATC—around the clock) ensures that pain is managed effectively.
B. Fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain management and take time to reach effective levels in the bloodstream (up to 12 hours or longer). In the case of acute severe pain from a vaso- occlusive crisis, this option would not provide immediate relief.
C. While ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can help relieve mild to moderate pain, it is not adequate for severe pain management. Additionally, in the setting of sickle cell disease, patients may be at risk for renal issues, making high doses of NSAIDs potentially harmful.
D. Hydromorphone is also a strong opioid analgesic; however, administering it orally may not be effective for severe pain management in an acute situation. IV administration of opioids is preferred for immediate and potent pain relief during a vaso-occlusive crisis.
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