Assessment of a woman in labor reveals cervical dilation of 3 cm, cervical effacement of 30%, and contractions occurring every 8 to 10 minutes, lasting about 30 seconds. The nurse determines that this client is in:
Select one:
Latent phase of the first stage of labor.
Transition phase of the first stage of labor.
Perineal phase of the second stage of labor.
Active phase of the first stage of labor.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: Latent phase of the first stage of labor. This is because this phase is characterized by mild and irregular contractions, slow cervical dilation (up to 4 cm), minimal cervical effacement (up to 40%), and minimal discomfort or pain. The latent phase is also known as the early phase or preparatory phase of labor.
Choice B Reason: Transition phase of the first stage of labor. This is an incorrect answer that describes a different phase with different characteristics. The transition phase is marked by strong and frequent contractions, rapid cervical dilation (from 8 to 10 cm), complete cervical effacement (100%), and intense discomfort or pain. The transition phase is also known as the terminal phase or acceleration phase of labor.
Choice C Reason: Perineal phase of the second stage of labor. This is an incorrect answer that refers to another stage and phase with different features. The second stage of labor begins with complete cervical dilation (10 cm) and ends with delivery of the baby. The perineal phase is the last part of the second stage, where the baby's head crowns and emerges through the vaginal opening.
Choice D Reason: Active phase of the first stage of labor. This is an incorrect answer that indicates another phase with different atributes. The active phase is characterized by moderate and regular contractions, progressive cervical dilation (from 4 to 8 cm), increased cervical effacement (from 40% to 80%), and increased discomfort or pain. The active phase is also known as the middle phase or dilatation phase of labor.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Prepare for IV dextrose administration. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an unnecessary and invasive intervention for an IDM with normal blood glucose. IV dextrose administration is indicated for an IDM with severe or persistent hypoglycemia, which is defined as a blood glucose below 40 mg/dL or below 60 mg/dL after two feedings.
Choice B Reason: Provide routine care, per hospital IDM protocol. This is because a blood glucose of 60 is within the normal range for an IDM, which is 40 to 80 mg/dL. An IDM is a newborn whose mother has pre-existing or gestational diabetes, which can affect the fetal and neonatal glucose metabolism and regulation. An IDM may have hypoglycemia (low blood glucose), hyperglycemia (high blood glucose), or other complications such as macrosomia, polycythemia, or congenital anomalies. An IDM requires routine care and monitoring according to the hospital IDM protocol, which may include blood glucose testing, feeding, temperature regulation, and observation for signs of distress.
Choice C Reason: Place the infant in a warmed incubator. This is an incorrect answer that suggests an irrelevant and potentially harmful action for an IDM with normal blood glucose. Placing the infant in a warmed incubator is indicated for an IDM with hypothermia, which is a low body temperature that can impair glucose utilization and increase oxygen consumption. However, placing the infant in a warmed incubator without proper indication can cause hyperthermia, which is a high body temperature that can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, or brain damage.
Choice D Reason: Alert the clinician immediately for orders. This is an incorrect answer that implies an urgent and unwarranted situation for an IDM with normal blood glucose. Alerting the clinician immediately for orders is indicated for an IDM with signs of distress or complications, such as apnea, cyanosis, seizures, or jaundice.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Manifestations of uteroplacental insufficiency. This is an incorrect answer that describes a different condition that affects the fetus, not the mother. Uteroplacental insufficiency is a condition where the placenta fails to deliver adequate oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, which can result in fetal growth restriction, distress, or demise. Uteroplacental insufficiency does not cause shortness of breath, hypoxia, or cyanosis in the mother.
Choice B Reason: Manifestations of prolapsed cord. This is an incorrect answer that refers to another condition that affects the fetus, not the mother. Prolapsed cord is a condition where the umbilical cord slips through the cervix before the baby and becomes compressed by the fetal head, which can reduce oxygen flow to the fetus. Prolapsed cord does not cause shortness of breath, hypoxia, or cyanosis in the mother.
Choice C Reason: Manifestations of anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy. This is because anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy, also known as amniotic fluid embolism, is a rare and fatal condition where amniotic fluid enters into the maternal bloodstream and causes an allergic reaction, which can lead to respiratory failure, cardiac arrest, coagulopathy, and coma. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy can occur during or after labor and delivery, especially in cases of NSVD, multiparity, advanced maternal age, or placental abruption.
Choice D Reason: Manifestations of an acute asthmatic episode. This is an incorrect answer that assumes that the mother has a history of asthma or an allergic trigger. Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and dyspnea. Asthma can be exacerbated by pregnancy or labor, but it is not a common cause of sudden onset respiratory distress in the postpartum period.

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