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The patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit she asks how to do kick counts. The best response by the nurse would be:
Select one:

Fetal movements are an indicator of fetal well-being. You should count twice a day, and you should feel ten fetal movements in 2 hours.

Here is a computer printed information packet on how to do kick counts.

Fetal kick counts are not a reliable indicator of fetal well-being in the third trimester.

It is not important to do kick counts because you have a low-risk pregnancy.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A Reason: Fetal movements are an indicator of fetal well-being. You should count twice a day, and you should feel ten fetal movements in 2 hours. This is because this response provides accurate and clear instructions on how to perform kick counts, which are a simple and non-invasive method of monitoring fetal activity and health. Kick counts can help detect changes in fetal movement paterns that may indicate fetal distress or hypoxia.

Choice B Reason: Here is a computer printed information packet on how to do kick counts. This is an insufficient answer that does not address the patient's question or demonstrate eﬀective communication skills. Providing writen information alone may not ensure the patient's understanding or compliance with kick counts.

Choice C Reason: Fetal kick counts are not a reliable indicator of fetal well-being in the third trimester. This is an incorrect answer that contradicts the evidence and guidelines on kick counts. Kick counts are recommended for all pregnant women, especially in the third trimester, when fetal movements are more noticeable and consistent.

Choice D Reason: It is not important to do kick counts because you have a low-risk pregnancy. This is an incorrect answer that discourages the patient from performing kick counts and may give her a false sense of security. Kick counts are important for all pregnant women, regardless of their risk status, as they can help identify potential problems that may require further evaluation or intervention.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Possible Meconium Aspiration Syndrome (MAS). This is an unlikely condition for this newborn, as MAS occurs when fetal stool (meconium) enters into the lungs before or during birth, causing airway obstruction, inﬂammation, and infection. MAS usually aﬀects term or post-term infants who experience fetal distress or hypoxia in utero.

Choice B Reason: Possible polycythemia. This is an unrelated condition for this newborn, as polycythemia refers to an abnormally high number of red blood cells in the blood, which can increase blood viscosity and impair circulation.

Polycythemia may occur in infants who have delayed cord clamping, intrauterine growth restriction, maternal diabetes, or high altitude exposure.

Choice C Reason: Possible Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn (TTN). This is a less serious condition than RDS, as TTN is a mild respiratory problem that results from delayed clearance of fetal lung ﬂuid after birth. TTN causes rapid breathing, nasal ﬂaring, grunting, and mild cyanosis. It usually resolves within 24 to 48 hours after birth.

Choice D Reason: Possible Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS). This is a serious condition that requires immediate intervention and treatment, as RDS can lead to life-threatening complications such as pulmonary hemorrhage, pneumothorax, or bronchopulmonary dysplasia. RDS causes respiratory distress, nasal ﬂaring, retractions, grunting, and central cyanosis. It usually occurs within minutes to hours after birth.

A. Inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness. B. Manually removing the placenta at delivery. C. Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically. D. Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness. This is because inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness is a nursing intervention that can prevent late postpartum hemorrhage, which is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs more than 24 hours but less than 12 weeks after delivery. Late postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by retained placental fragments, subinvolution of the uterus, infection, or coagulation disorders. Inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness can help identify and remove any retained placental fragments that may interfere with uterine contraction and involution, which are essential for hemostasis.

Choice B Reason: Manually removing the placenta at delivery. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an inappropriate and risky intervention that can cause late postpartum hemorrhage. Manually removing the placenta at delivery is a procedure that involves inserting a hand into the uterus and detaching the placenta from the uterine wall. Manually removing the placenta at delivery is indicated only for a retained or adherent placenta that does not separate spontaneously or with gentle traction within 30 minutes after delivery. Manually removing the placenta at delivery can cause trauma, infection, or incomplete removal of the placenta, which can increase the risk of late postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice C Reason: Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically. This is an incorrect answer that suggests an unnecessary and ineﬀective intervention that can prevent late postpartum hemorrhage. Administering broad- spectrum antibiotics prophylactically is a pharmacological intervention that involves giving antibiotics to prevent or treat infection. Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically is indicated for women with risk factors or signs of infection during or after delivery, such as prolonged rupture of membranes, chorioamnionitis, fever, or foul- smelling lochia. Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically may reduce the risk of infection-related late postpartum hemorrhage, but it does not address other causes of late postpartum hemorrhage such as retained placental fragments or subinvolution of the uterus.

Choice D Reason: Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent intervention that can prevent early postpartum hemorrhage, not late postpartum hemorrhage. Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta is a technique that involves pulling on the umbilical cord while applying counter pressure on the uterus to facilitate placental expulsion. Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta is indicated for active management of the third stage of labor, which can prevent early postpartum hemorrhage, which is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs within 24 hours after delivery. Early postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by uterine atony, retained placenta, lacerations, or coagulation disorders.

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The patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit she asks how to do kick counts. The best response by the nurse would be: Select one:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which of the following would be essential to implement to prevent late postpartum hemorrhage? Select one:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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The patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit she asks how to do kick counts. The best response by the nurse would be:
Select one: