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The patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit she asks how to do kick counts. The best response by the nurse would be:
Select one:

Fetal movements are an indicator of fetal well-being. You should count twice a day, and you should feel ten fetal movements in 2 hours.

Here is a computer printed information packet on how to do kick counts.

Fetal kick counts are not a reliable indicator of fetal well-being in the third trimester.

It is not important to do kick counts because you have a low-risk pregnancy.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A Reason: Fetal movements are an indicator of fetal well-being. You should count twice a day, and you should feel ten fetal movements in 2 hours. This is because this response provides accurate and clear instructions on how to perform kick counts, which are a simple and non-invasive method of monitoring fetal activity and health. Kick counts can help detect changes in fetal movement paterns that may indicate fetal distress or hypoxia.

Choice B Reason: Here is a computer printed information packet on how to do kick counts. This is an insufficient answer that does not address the patient's question or demonstrate eﬀective communication skills. Providing writen information alone may not ensure the patient's understanding or compliance with kick counts.

Choice C Reason: Fetal kick counts are not a reliable indicator of fetal well-being in the third trimester. This is an incorrect answer that contradicts the evidence and guidelines on kick counts. Kick counts are recommended for all pregnant women, especially in the third trimester, when fetal movements are more noticeable and consistent.

Choice D Reason: It is not important to do kick counts because you have a low-risk pregnancy. This is an incorrect answer that discourages the patient from performing kick counts and may give her a false sense of security. Kick counts are important for all pregnant women, regardless of their risk status, as they can help identify potential problems that may require further evaluation or intervention.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Manifestations of uteroplacental insufficiency. This is an incorrect answer that describes a diﬀerent condition that aﬀects the fetus, not the mother. Uteroplacental insufficiency is a condition where the placenta fails to deliver adequate oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, which can result in fetal growth restriction, distress, or demise. Uteroplacental insufficiency does not cause shortness of breath, hypoxia, or cyanosis in the mother.

Choice B Reason: Manifestations of prolapsed cord. This is an incorrect answer that refers to another condition that aﬀects the fetus, not the mother. Prolapsed cord is a condition where the umbilical cord slips through the cervix before the baby and becomes compressed by the fetal head, which can reduce oxygen ﬂow to the fetus. Prolapsed cord does not cause shortness of breath, hypoxia, or cyanosis in the mother.

Choice C Reason: Manifestations of anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy. This is because anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy, also known as amniotic ﬂuid embolism, is a rare and fatal condition where amniotic ﬂuid enters into the maternal bloodstream and causes an allergic reaction, which can lead to respiratory failure, cardiac arrest, coagulopathy, and coma. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy can occur during or after labor and delivery, especially in cases of NSVD, multiparity, advanced maternal age, or placental abruption.

Choice D Reason: Manifestations of an acute asthmatic episode. This is an incorrect answer that assumes that the mother has a history of asthma or an allergic trigger. Asthma is a chronic inﬂammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and dyspnea. Asthma can be exacerbated by pregnancy or labor, but it is not a common cause of sudden onset respiratory distress in the postpartum period.

A. Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole. B. Assess for congenital anomalies. C. Determine fetal presentation. D. Monitor fetal growth.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole. This is an incorrect answer that describes an unlikely condition for this client. A hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease where abnormal placental tissue develops instead of a normal fetus. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting), preeclampsia, and hyperthyroidism. A hydatidiform mole usually causes a fundal height measurement that is larger than expected for gestational age, not smaller.

Choice B Reason: Assess for congenital anomalies. This is an incorrect answer that implies that the client has not had a previous ultrasound to screen for fetal anomalies. Congenital anomalies are structural or functional defects that are present at birth, such as cleft lip, spina bifida, or Down syndrome. Ultrasound can detect some congenital anomalies by visualizing the fetal anatomy and morphology. However, ultrasound screening for fetal anomalies is usually done between 18 and 22 weeks of gestation, not at 32 weeks.

Choice C Reason: Determine fetal presentation. This is an incorrect answer that suggests that the client has an uncertain fetal presentation. Fetal presentation is the part of the fetus that is closest to the cervix, such as vertex (head), breech (butocks or feet), or transverse (shoulder). Fetal presentation can aﬀect the mode and outcome of delivery. Ultrasound can determine fetal presentation by locating the fetal head and spine. However, fetal presentation can also be assessed by abdominal palpation or vaginal examination, which are simpler and less invasive methods.

Choice D Reason: Monitor fetal growth. This is because fundal height measurement is a method of estimating fetal size and gestational age by measuring the distance from the pubic symphysis to the top of the uterus (fundus) in centimeters. A fundal height measurement that is significantly smaller or larger than expected for gestational age may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or macrosomia, respectively. IUGR means that the fetal growth is slower than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of fetal distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and stillbirth. Macrosomia means that the fetal weight is higher than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of birth injuries, shoulder dystocia, cesarean delivery, and hypoglycemia. Ultrasound is a more accurate way of assessing fetal size and growth by measuring various parameters such as biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur length (FL). Ultrasound can also detect other factors that may aﬀect fetal growth such as placental function, amniotic ﬂuid volume, umbilical cord blood ﬂow, and fetal anomalies.

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The patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit she asks how to do kick counts. The best response by the nurse would be: Select one:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Following a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery (NSVD), a 28 year old G3 now P3 mother develops sudden onset shortness of breath, hypoxia and cyanosis. The delivery room nurse quickly recognizes these symptoms as possible: Select one:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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The patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit she asks how to do kick counts. The best response by the nurse would be:
Select one: