At 0600, while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section (C-section), the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

Start prescribed IV with lactated Ringer’s.

Inform the anesthesia care provider.

Ensure preoperative lab results are available.

Contact the client’s obstetrician.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Starting IV fluids is essential but not the priority in this situation. Caffeine intake may alter anesthesia effects, and the anesthesiologist needs to be informed first.

Choice B rationale

Informing the anesthesia care provider is crucial because caffeine can affect anesthesia administration and increase the risk of complications, such as increased gastric acidity and delayed gastric emptying.

Choice C rationale

Ensuring preoperative lab results is important, but it is not the immediate priority compared to informing the anesthesia care provider about the caffeine intake, which directly impacts anesthesia management.

Choice D rationale

Contacting the obstetrician is necessary but secondary. The immediate priority is to inform the anesthesia care provider about the caffeine intake, which has direct implications for anesthesia and surgical safety.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Administering acetaminophen is not indicated as the temperature of 100.4° F (38° C) is within the normal postpartum range, often due to dehydration or breast engorgement. Acetaminophen should be used cautiously and only if necessary.

Choice B rationale

Assessing perineum for excessive lochia is unnecessary here, as the current vital signs do not indicate hemorrhage. Normal postpartum bleeding gradually decreases in amount and should be monitored accordingly but not prompted by these vitals.

Choice C rationale

Documentation of vital signs is essential to maintain accurate medical records and track any changes in the patient's condition. Accurate records help in identifying trends and making informed decisions about patient care.

Choice D rationale

Reporting a heart rate of 58 beats/minute is unnecessary because bradycardia can be normal in postpartum women, especially if they have good cardiovascular fitness. It is important to monitor for other symptoms before taking further action.

A. A couple who express concern about birth defects after using an internet DNA testing site. B. A woman and her significant other who are excited about the prospect of having children. C. A woman planning to start a second family after the loss of an embryo following an in-vitro fertilization procedure. D. A man who states that his father was recently diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. E. A couple who plan to use in-vitro fertilization with donated sperm.

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]

Explanation

The correct answer is Choice A, Choice C, Choice D, Choice E.

Choice A rationale

Genetic counseling is recommended for couples concerned about birth defects to identify any potential genetic abnormalities or risks for inherited conditions.

Choice B rationale

Couples excited about having children do not necessarily require genetic counseling unless there are known risk factors or concerns about genetic conditions.

Choice C rationale

Loss of an embryo following an in-vitro fertilization procedure may indicate underlying genetic issues, warranting further evaluation through genetic counseling.

Choice D rationale

Huntington’s disease is an autosomal dominant disorder; individuals with a family history should seek genetic counseling to assess their risk of inheritance and possible transmission.

Choice E rationale

In-vitro fertilization with donated sperm may involve genetic screening and counseling to ensure the donor's genetic profile is compatible and free of heritable conditions.

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At 0600, while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section (C-section), the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The current vital signs for a primipara who delivered vaginally during the previous shift are: temperature 100.4° F (38° C), heart rate 58 beats/minute, respiratory rate 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 130/74 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is conducting a preconception class for a group of parents who are anticipating having children. Which client(s) should the nurse refer for genetic counseling? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]

Explanation

After two miscarriages, a client is instructed to increase her daily intake of foods that includes folic acid. The client does not like green leafy vegetables and states she is allergic to soy. Which food should the nurse suggest that the client eat to obtain folic acid?

A nurse is caring for a 24-year-old pregnant woman in the prenatal clinic. She is gravida 2, para 1 (G2P1), and her mother has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Exhibits: Exhibits Which is likely causing this client's increased blood glucose at 28 weeks? Select all that apply.

A client who is 38 weeks pregnant is concerned her baby might get a communicable disease before any immunizations are given. Which physiological mechanism should the nurse use when responding to the mother’s concerns?

The nurse reports the current assessment findings to the healthcare provider (HCP). Based on the assessment findings, the priority diagnosis suspected is preeclampsia. This diagnosis places the client at risk of which complications?

Abnormal FHR patterns can result in which condition?

A client receiving a solution of magnesium sulfate suddenly develops right upper quadrant pain. After reviewing abnormal laboratory results, what action should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)