Bobby is an 8-year-old patient who is to receive Amoxicillin 250 mg every 8 hours. You have 250 mg/5 mL. How many teaspoons will you tell his mother to administer every 8 hours?
2 tsp
3 tsp
1 tsp
4 tsp
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Administering 2 teaspoons (10 mL) would deliver 500 mg of Amoxicillin, as the concentration is 250 mg/5 mL, and 1 teaspoon equals 5 mL. This dose is double the prescribed 250 mg, risking overdose. Amoxicillin overdose can cause gastrointestinal distress or, in rare cases, renal toxicity, making this choice scientifically inappropriate for the prescribed dose.
Choice B reason: Giving 3 teaspoons (15 mL) would deliver 750 mg of Amoxicillin, far exceeding the prescribed 250 mg dose. The concentration is 250 mg/5 mL, so 15 mL contains three times the required amount. This could lead to adverse effects like diarrhea or allergic reactions, as excessive antibiotic levels disrupt gut flora and increase toxicity risks.
Choice C reason: One teaspoon (5 mL) delivers exactly 250 mg of Amoxicillin, matching the prescribed dose, as the concentration is 250 mg/5 mL. This ensures therapeutic efficacy for treating infections like otitis media in children, maintaining serum levels within the therapeutic range (MIC for common pathogens like Streptococcus pneumoniae), minimizing side effects, and adhering to pediatric dosing guidelines.
Choice D reason: Four teaspoons (20 mL) would deliver 1000 mg of Amoxicillin, four times the prescribed dose. At 250 mg/5 mL, this excessive dose risks severe side effects, including nephrotoxicity or hepatotoxicity, and disrupts microbial balance, potentially causing antibiotic resistance. This is scientifically inappropriate, as it deviates significantly from the therapeutic dose for an 8-year-old.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Mutism, the absence of speech, is not typical in acute mania, where dopamine-driven hyperactivity increases verbal output. Mutism is more associated with catatonia or severe depression, where psychomotor inhibition or serotonin deficits reduce communication, making this inconsistent with mania’s neurobiological profile.
Choice B reason: Flight of ideas, characterized by rapid, disjointed speech, typifies acute mania due to dopamine and norepinephrine hyperactivity in the prefrontal cortex and limbic system. This leads to accelerated thought processes and pressured speech, reflecting the manic state’s heightened neural excitability and reduced inhibitory control.
Choice C reason: Hesitant speech is not characteristic of acute mania, where dopamine-driven hyperactivity results in rapid, pressured speech. Hesitancy may occur in anxiety or depression, linked to serotonin dysregulation or prefrontal inhibition, contrasting with mania’s uninhibited, accelerated verbal output driven by neurochemical overstimulation.
Choice D reason: Psychomotor retardation, slowed speech and movement, is typical of depression, driven by serotonin and dopamine deficits. In acute mania, heightened dopamine and norepinephrine activity cause rapid speech and agitation, making psychomotor retardation incompatible with the neurobiological profile of manic speech patterns.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Valproic acid does not typically require thyroid function tests, as it primarily affects liver metabolism via glucuronidation and mitochondrial pathways. Thyroid dysfunction is not a common side effect, unlike with lithium, which impacts thyroid hormone synthesis. This instruction is irrelevant, as valproic acid’s toxicity risks are hepatic, not thyroid-related.
Choice B reason: Expecting a gradual decrease in valproic acid dosage is incorrect, as it is titrated to therapeutic levels for conditions like seizures or bipolar disorder, based on serum levels (50–100 mcg/mL). Dosage adjustments depend on efficacy, not routine reduction, as stable neural excitability is needed, making this scientifically inaccurate.
Choice C reason: Taking aspirin for pain with valproic acid is risky, as both inhibit platelet function, increasing bleeding risk via synergistic effects on prostaglandin synthesis. Valproic acid’s hepatic metabolism also raises hepatotoxicity concerns, making aspirin inappropriate. Alternative analgesics like acetaminophen are safer, rendering this instruction incorrect.
Choice D reason: Valproic acid requires regular liver function monitoring, as it is hepatically metabolized and can cause hepatotoxicity, particularly in the first 6 months, due to mitochondrial dysfunction and oxidative stress. Elevated liver enzymes or rare fulminant hepatitis necessitate early detection to prevent liver failure, making this a critical instruction.
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