Click to highlight the five errors in the following paragraph.
Joe is a 28-year-old construction worker diagnosed with stage 1 Hodgkin disease. He initially went to his health care provider because of a painful lump in his neck. He is also experiencing high fevers and weight loss. The diagnosis was confirmed in a laboratory test by the presence of Bence-Jones cells. He expresses his fears to his nurse, who tells him that Hodgkin disease is not really cancer, but it is often curable. Joe takes a leave from work and begins palliative radiation therapy.
painful lump in his neck
high fevers
presence of Bence-Jones cells
not really cancer
palliative radiation therapy
The Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
First, Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) is commonly characterized by painless lymphadenopathy and is not painful, as stated above. Secondly, HL is often characterized by a low-grade fever rather than a high fever. Third, the presence of Bence-Jones cells in a laboratory test is not associated with Hodgkin lymphoma but indicates multiple myeloma, a different type of cancer. Fourth, Hodgkin disease is indeed a form of cancer; it is a malignancy of the lymphatic system. The nurse's statement that it is "not really cancer" is incorrect and misleading. Fifth, palliative radiation therapy is typically used to relieve symptoms in advanced stages of cancer or non-curative scenarios. However, for stage 1 Hodgkin lymphoma, the treatment usually involves chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy with curative intent, not palliative. Joe's nurse should provide accurate information about the nature of Hodgkin's disease and its treatment options, which are based on the stage and specific characteristics of the lymphoma.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Digoxin typically decreases the heart rate by increasing vagal tone and reducing conduction through the atrioventricular node.
B. Digoxin may have minimal effects on blood pressure, primarily by improving cardiac output in patients with heart failure, but its primary action is on cardiac contractility and rhythm.
C. Digoxin has a negative chronotropic effect, meaning it slows the heart rate by increasing parasympathetic tone and decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node.
D. Digoxin has a positive inotropic effect, meaning it increases the force of cardiac contractions, which can be beneficial in patients with heart failure.
E. Digoxin can suppress ectopic beats (abnormal heart rhythms originating outside the sinoatrial node) by slowing conduction through the atrioventricular node and enhancing vagal tone
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The P wave on an ECG represents atrial depolarization, which occurs as the electrical impulse originates in the sinoatrial (SA) node and spreads through the atria, initiating atrial contraction.
B. Atrial repolarization typically occurs during the QRS complex and is not represented by the P wave. Atrial repolarization is masked by the larger QRS complex.
C. Ventricular depolarization is represented by the QRS complex on an ECG, as the electrical impulse spreads through the ventricles, leading to ventricular contraction.
D. Ventricular repolarization typically occurs during the T wave and is not represented by the P wave. Ventricular repolarization involves the recovery of ventricular muscle cells after contraction.
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