Click to highlight the five errors in the following paragraph.
Joe is a 28-year-old construction worker diagnosed with stage 1 Hodgkin disease. He initially went to his health care provider because of a painful lump in his neck. He is also experiencing high fevers and weight loss. The diagnosis was confirmed in a laboratory test by the presence of Bence-Jones cells. He expresses his fears to his nurse, who tells him that Hodgkin disease is not really cancer, but it is often curable. Joe takes a leave from work and begins palliative radiation therapy.
painful lump in his neck
high fevers
presence of Bence-Jones cells
not really cancer
palliative radiation therapy
The Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
First, Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) is commonly characterized by painless lymphadenopathy and is not painful, as stated above. Secondly, HL is often characterized by a low-grade fever rather than a high fever. Third, the presence of Bence-Jones cells in a laboratory test is not associated with Hodgkin lymphoma but indicates multiple myeloma, a different type of cancer. Fourth, Hodgkin disease is indeed a form of cancer; it is a malignancy of the lymphatic system. The nurse's statement that it is "not really cancer" is incorrect and misleading. Fifth, palliative radiation therapy is typically used to relieve symptoms in advanced stages of cancer or non-curative scenarios. However, for stage 1 Hodgkin lymphoma, the treatment usually involves chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy with curative intent, not palliative. Joe's nurse should provide accurate information about the nature of Hodgkin's disease and its treatment options, which are based on the stage and specific characteristics of the lymphoma.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. While bone involvement can occur in Hodgkin lymphoma, it is not typically associated with a high risk of spontaneous pathological fractures compared to multiple myeloma.
B. Multiple myeloma is characterized by the destruction of bone tissue, leading to an increased risk of spontaneous pathological fractures.
C. Leukemia primarily affects the bone marrow and may cause bone pain but does not typically lead to spontaneous pathological fractures.
D. Hemophilia is a bleeding disorder characterized by a deficiency in clotting factors and is not directly associated with an increased risk of spontaneous pathological fractures.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
A. Hodgkin's disease is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are large, abnormal lymphocytes.
B. Enlarged, painless lymph nodes, particularly in the neck, armpits, or groin, are characteristic of Hodgkin's disease.
C. Skeletal pain is not a typical symptom of Hodgkin's disease. Patients may experience generalized symptoms such as fatigue, fever, and weight loss.
D. Hodgkin's disease has a relatively high cure rate, especially in comparison to other types of lymphomas. Advances in treatment have improved outcomes for many patients with Hodgkin's disease.
E. Philadelphia chromosome is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia, not Hodgkin's disease.
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