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Differentiate Type 2 diabetes mellitus from Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 2 is best described as:

A.

Presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy beta cells in the pancreas

B.

Need for lifelong insulin injections

C.

Increase of glucagon secretion from beta cells of the pancreas

D.

Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy beta cells in the pancreas: This describes the autoimmune process characteristic of Type 1 diabetes mellitus, where the immune system attacks pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency.

B. Need for lifelong insulin injections: Lifelong insulin therapy is typically required in Type 1 diabetes due to absolute insulin deficiency. Many individuals with Type 2 diabetes can manage their condition initially with lifestyle changes and oral medications.

C. Increase of glucagon secretion from beta cells of the pancreas: Glucagon is secreted by alpha cells, not beta cells, in the pancreas. Dysregulation of glucagon contributes to hyperglycemia but is not a defining feature distinguishing Type 2 diabetes.

D. Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues: Type 2 diabetes is primarily characterized by insulin resistance, where muscle, fat, and liver cells do not respond properly to insulin, leading to elevated blood glucose levels despite normal or increased insulin production. This resistance is a hallmark feature distinguishing it from Type 1 diabetes.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is ["B","D"]

Explanation

A. Traveling abroad recently: While international travel can expose individuals to infectious diseases, it is not the most concerning factor in this case compared to his communal living situation.

B. Living in a large, crowded communal setting: Crowded living conditions significantly increase the risk of meningitis transmission, especially for bacterial types like Neisseria meningitidis which spread via respiratory droplets.

C. An infection of the brain tissue, typically due to a virus or bacteria: This describes encephalitis, not meningitis. Meningitis affects the protective membranes, not the brain tissue itself.

D. An inflammation of the protective membranes around the brain and spinal cord (meninges): This is the correct definition of meningitis and is the pathological hallmark of the disease.

E. Having an allergy to medications: Having an allergy to medications is important for safe patient care and medication administration, but it is not a risk factor for acquiring meningitis.

F. An inflammation of the lungs caused by a viral or bacterial infection: This describes pneumonia, not meningitis. It is unrelated to the direct cause of meningitis.

Correct Answer is []

Explanation

Potential Condition: Hepatic Encephalopathy

  • The client has very high ammonia levels (236 mcg/dL), elevated liver enzymes, and low albumin, all pointing toward hepatic encephalopathy. Additional signs include a history of alcohol abuse, cirrhosis, and altered liver function, which commonly contribute to ammonia accumulation and neurotoxicity.

Actions to Take:

  • Administer lactulose: Helps lower serum ammonia by promoting its excretion via the GI tract.

  • Assess for asterixis: A classic sign of hepatic encephalopathy characterized by a flapping tremor of the hands.

Parameters to Monitor:

  • Neurologic status: To detect changes in mental status or worsening encephalopathy.

  • Safety measures: Clients with hepatic encephalopathy are at high risk for confusion, falls, and injury, necessitating close supervision and safety interventions.

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