How do we measure inflammation? (Select all that apply)
Red blood cells (RBC)
White blood cells (WBC)
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Fever
Correct Answer : B,C,D
Choice A reason: Red blood cells are not a direct measure of inflammation; they assess anemia or oxygen-carrying capacity. Inflammation is measured by WBC, ESR, and fever, which reflect immune activity and systemic response, so this is incorrect for inflammation measurement.
Choice B reason: White blood cells (WBC) increase during inflammation (leukocytosis), indicating immune activation. This is a standard laboratory measure of inflammatory processes, making it a correct choice for assessing inflammation in clinical practice.
Choice C reason: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures how quickly red blood cells settle, rising with inflammation due to increased proteins. It’s a common marker for inflammatory conditions, making it a correct selection for measuring inflammation.
Choice D reason: Fever is a clinical sign of inflammation, driven by cytokines like IL-6. It’s a systemic response measured via temperature, making it a correct choice for assessing inflammation alongside laboratory markers like WBC and ESR.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Platelet plug formation (activation, adhesion, aggregation) is a key hemostasis stage, initiating clotting. Hypercoagulability is a pathological state, not a normal stage, so this is incorrect as the exception.
Choice B reason: Blood coagulation, forming a fibrin clot, is a core hemostasis stage, stabilizing the platelet plug. Hypercoagulability is not a standard stage, so this is incorrect for the exception.
Choice C reason: Hypercoagulability is a pathological condition increasing clotting risk, not a normal hemostasis stage. Vessel spasm, platelet plug, and coagulation are standard stages, making this the correct exception.
Choice D reason: Vessel spasm (vasoconstriction) is the initial hemostasis stage, reducing blood flow to the injury. Hypercoagulability is not a stage, so this is incorrect as the exception.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Insulin autoantibodies destroying beta cells characterize Type 1 diabetes, an autoimmune condition causing insulin deficiency. Type 2 involves insulin resistance with relative insulin insufficiency, not autoantibody-mediated beta cell destruction, making this an incorrect description.
Choice B reason: Lifelong insulin injections are typical in Type 1 diabetes due to absolute insulin deficiency. Type 2 patients may manage with lifestyle changes, oral medications, or insulin later, but it’s not a defining feature, making this incorrect.
Choice C reason: Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance in tissues like muscle and liver, reducing glucose uptake despite normal or elevated insulin levels. This, with eventual beta cell dysfunction, defines the disease, making this the correct description.
Choice D reason: Increased glucagon secretion from alpha cells, not beta cells, may occur in diabetes, but it’s not the primary feature of Type 2. Insulin resistance is the hallmark, with beta cells producing insulin, making this an incorrect description.
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