Identify the type of fracture below.
Stress.
Comminuted.
Oblique.
Pathologic.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
A stress fracture is a tiny crack in a bone caused by repetitive stress or force, often from overuse, rather than a single traumatic event. The image depicts a fracture pattern that is not consistent with the subtle, often hairline nature of a typical stress fracture.
Choice B rationale
A comminuted fracture involves the bone breaking into three or more fragments. While the image shows significant bone damage, it does not clearly depict multiple distinct fragments as seen in a comminuted fracture, which would be shattered into many pieces.
Choice C rationale
An oblique fracture occurs at an angle to the bone's long axis, typically resulting from a twisting force. The image shows a fracture that extends through the bone due to underlying disease, not a simple angular break characteristic of an oblique fracture.
Choice D rationale
A pathologic fracture occurs when a bone breaks due to an underlying disease or condition that weakens the bone, such as osteoporosis, cancer, or infection, rather than from significant trauma. The image illustrates a bone weakened by disease, leading to a fracture.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Increasing oxygen flow without assessing the client's respiratory status first can be detrimental for a client with COPD. High oxygen concentrations can suppress the hypoxic drive, which is a primary stimulus for breathing in some COPD patients, potentially leading to hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis.
Choice B rationale
While coughing and expectorating secretions can improve airway clearance, it is not the initial priority when a client with COPD reports difficulty breathing. A comprehensive assessment is crucial to determine the underlying cause of dyspnea before implementing interventions that may not be appropriate.
Choice C rationale
Calling emergency services immediately without first assessing the client's respiratory status is premature. The nurse needs to gather more information to determine the severity of the client's condition and whether immediate emergency intervention is warranted, or if other actions can alleviate the distress.
Choice D rationale
Assessing the client's respiratory status is the priority action. This involves evaluating respiratory rate, depth, effort, use of accessory muscles, oxygen saturation (SpO2), and breath sounds. This provides objective data to guide further interventions and determine the severity of the respiratory distress.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Third-degree AV block, also known as complete heart block, is characterized by a complete dissociation between atrial and ventricular activity, meaning P waves and QRS complexes occur independently without any consistent relationship. This rhythm does not exhibit such complete dissociation.
Choice B rationale
First-degree AV block is indicated by a prolonged PR interval (greater than 0.20 seconds) with every P wave followed by a QRS complex. The rhythm strip shows a progressive lengthening of the PR interval before a dropped QRS, which is not characteristic of first-degree block.
Choice C rationale
Second-degree AV block Mobitz type 1 (Wenckebach) is characterized by a progressive lengthening of the PR interval over several beats, eventually culminating in a P wave that is not followed by a QRS complex (a dropped beat), after which the cycle repeats. This is exactly what is shown in the telemetry strip.
Choice D rationale
Second-degree AV block Mobitz type 2 is characterized by a constant PR interval for conducted beats, but with intermittent dropped QRS complexes without prior PR interval prolongation. This differs from the progressive PR lengthening seen in the provided rhythm strip.
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