In preparation for a client having a Schilling test the nurse should explain that the test:
will confirm a diagnosis of G6PD anemia
is a 24-hour urine specimen collection test!
involves limiting intake of animal proteins
entails administration of methylcellulose prior to the test
The Correct Answer is B
A. "will confirm a diagnosis of G6PD anemia": This statement is incorrect. The Schilling test is specifically used to evaluate vitamin B12 absorption and diagnose conditions like pernicious anemia, not G6PD deficiency.
B. "is a 24-hour urine specimen collection test": This statement is accurate. The Schilling test typically involves collecting a 24-hour urine specimen to measure the amount of radioactively labeled vitamin B12 excreted in the urine, which helps determine if the body is absorbing vitamin B12 properly.
C. "involves limiting intake of animal proteins": This statement is misleading. While dietary restrictions may be necessary for certain tests, the Schilling test primarily focuses on the absorption of vitamin B12 and does not require limiting animal protein intake.
D. "entails administration of methylcellulose prior to the test": This statement is incorrect. Methylcellulose is not involved in the Schilling test. The test typically includes administration of oral vitamin B12 with or without intrinsic factor to evaluate absorption.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Bottle spoon-shaped fingernails: This is a classic sign associated with iron deficiency anemia, known as koilonychia. The nails may appear thin, brittle, and spoon-shaped, indicating a deficiency in iron.
B. Platelets 400,000/µL: This platelet count is within the normal range (typically 150,000 to 450,000/µL) and does not specifically indicate iron deficiency anemia. Thus, it is not an expected finding.
C. Red blood cell count 4.5 million/mm³: This value is within the normal range for females (approximately 4.2 to 5.4 million/mm³). In iron deficiency anemia, one would expect the RBC count to be low or at least on the lower end of normal.
D. Hemoglobin 8.0 g/dL: This low hemoglobin level is indicative of anemia. In iron deficiency anemia, hemoglobin levels are often significantly decreased, so this finding aligns with the client's condition.
E. Tachypnea: Increased respiratory rate can occur in response to anemia, as the body attempts to compensate for decreased oxygen-carrying capacity by increasing breathing rate. Therefore, tachypnea is a likely finding in this client.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The layers of your heart are weak and thin: This statement does not accurately address the underlying cause of chest pain in coronary artery disease. Weakness in heart layers is not a common explanation for angina.
B. The pain you have is because your heart valves are damaged: While valve damage can lead to cardiac symptoms, it is not the primary cause of chest pain associated with coronary artery disease, which is more directly related to blood flow issues.
C. Your heart muscle is weak and is not pumping forcefully: This statement could be true in the context of heart failure but does not specifically explain the chest pain associated with coronary artery disease.
D. The pain is caused by decreased oxygen to the heart muscle: This is the most accurate and appropriate response. Chest pain in coronary artery disease, often referred to as angina, typically occurs due to reduced blood flow and, consequently, oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. This explanation helps the client understand the physiological basis of their symptoms.
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