Isky, a 65-year-old female, is admitted to the hospital after experiencing sudden weakness or and numbness on the right side or of her body, along with difficulty speaking. Isky has a medical history that includes hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and smoking. This type Which of stroke is Isky most likely experiencing based on the sudden onset of her symptoms?
Hemorrhagic stroke
Ischemic stroke
Transient ischemic attack
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Hemorrhagic stroke often causes headache and severe neurological deficits, not just sudden weakness. Ischemic stroke, from a clot, fits Isky’s sudden focal symptoms, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Ischemic stroke, caused by arterial occlusion, presents with sudden weakness, numbness, and speech issues, as seen in Isky. Her risk factors (hypertension, diabetes, smoking) support this, making it correct.
Choice C reason: Transient ischemic attack resolves quickly, unlike Isky’s ongoing symptoms. Ischemic stroke causes persistent deficits, matching her presentation, so this is incorrect for the stroke type.
Choice D reason: Subarachnoid hemorrhage typically involves severe headache, not focal weakness. Ischemic stroke aligns with Isky’s sudden, unilateral symptoms, so this is incorrect for her condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Antibiotics treat bacterial infections, but inspiratory stridor, cough, and tachypnea suggest acute airway obstruction, like croup or bronchospasm. Antibiotics are not immediate for these symptoms, as they address infection, not airway narrowing, making this a lower-priority treatment.
Choice B reason: Sputum culture identifies pathogens but is not urgent for inspiratory stridor, which indicates airway compromise needing immediate relief. Cultures guide long-term therapy, not acute management, making this an incorrect priority for the patient’s presentation.
Choice C reason: Inhaled bronchodilators, like albuterol, are the priority for inspiratory stridor, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea, as they relax airway smooth muscles, relieving bronchospasm or narrowing. This addresses acute airway obstruction, common in conditions like asthma or croup, making it the correct treatment.
Choice D reason: History of illness exposure informs diagnosis but delays treatment for acute airway symptoms. Inspiratory stridor requires immediate intervention to ensure airway patency, making history-taking secondary to addressing the urgent respiratory distress, thus an incorrect priority.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) causes isolated thrombocytopenia due to autoimmune platelet destruction, leading to bleeding like petechiae. However, it does not typically cause prolonged PT/aPTT, elevated D-dimer, or DVT, making it inconsistent with Lorretta’s multi-system coagulopathy.
Choice B reason: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) involves microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and organ damage but typically presents with neurological or renal symptoms, not prolonged PT/aPTT or DVT. Lorretta’s coagulopathy and DVT history better align with another condition, making TTP incorrect.
Choice C reason: Hemophilia, a genetic clotting factor deficiency, causes prolonged aPTT but not thrombocytopenia, elevated D-dimer, or DVT. It primarily affects males and causes joint or muscle bleeds, not diffuse bleeding like Lorretta’s, making this an incorrect diagnosis.
Choice D reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) involves widespread clotting and bleeding, causing thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT/aPTT, elevated D-dimer, and petechiae. Lorretta’s DVT history and anticoagulant use may trigger DIC, with leg swelling indicating thrombosis, making this the correct diagnosis.
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