Isky, a 65-year-old female, is admitted to the hospital after experiencing sudden weakness or and numbness on the right side or of her body, along with difficulty speaking. Isky has a medical history that includes hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and smoking. This type Which of stroke is Isky most likely experiencing based on the sudden onset of her symptoms?
Hemorrhagic stroke
Ischemic stroke
Transient ischemic attack
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Hemorrhagic stroke often causes headache and severe neurological deficits, not just sudden weakness. Ischemic stroke, from a clot, fits Isky’s sudden focal symptoms, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Ischemic stroke, caused by arterial occlusion, presents with sudden weakness, numbness, and speech issues, as seen in Isky. Her risk factors (hypertension, diabetes, smoking) support this, making it correct.
Choice C reason: Transient ischemic attack resolves quickly, unlike Isky’s ongoing symptoms. Ischemic stroke causes persistent deficits, matching her presentation, so this is incorrect for the stroke type.
Choice D reason: Subarachnoid hemorrhage typically involves severe headache, not focal weakness. Ischemic stroke aligns with Isky’s sudden, unilateral symptoms, so this is incorrect for her condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Increased permeability and leakage occur at an injury site due to histamine and cytokine release, causing endothelial gaps. This allows plasma and immune cells to enter tissues, promoting inflammation and edema, making this a correct vascular change.
Choice B reason: Blood vessels initially constrict to limit bleeding, then dilate to increase blood flow, delivering immune cells and nutrients. This biphasic response (constriction followed by dilation) is a hallmark of acute injury, making this a correct vascular change.
Choice C reason: Pallor occurs from initial vasoconstriction, reducing blood flow, followed by swelling from increased permeability and fluid leakage. These are typical injury responses, reflecting vascular and tissue changes, making this a correct observation.
Choice D reason: “None of the above” is incorrect, as increased permeability, biphasic vessel response, and pallor with swelling are well-documented vascular changes at injury sites. These align with the inflammatory process, making this an invalid choice.
Choice E reason: Tightening of capillary endothelial junctions does not occur during acute injury. Junctions loosen due to inflammatory mediators, increasing permeability, not tightening, which would limit leakage, making this an incorrect vascular change.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Weight loss helps GERD by reducing abdominal pressure, but calcium channel blockers can worsen reflux by relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter. This makes the regimen counterproductive, as it does not effectively reduce acid exposure, rendering it an incorrect treatment choice.
Choice B reason: Surgical correction of the pylorus addresses gastric outlet issues, not GERD, which involves lower esophageal sphincter dysfunction. Procedures like fundoplication target GERD, but surgery is reserved for severe cases, making this an incorrect primary treatment regimen.
Choice C reason: Antacids provide temporary relief but do not suppress acid production long-term. Avoiding exacerbating positions and soft diets help, but they are less effective without stronger acid suppression, making this regimen less comprehensive than proton pump inhibitors for managing GERD.
Choice D reason: Proton pump inhibitors reduce acid production, healing esophageal damage in GERD. Avoiding large meals and staying upright minimize reflux episodes by reducing stomach pressure and promoting gastric emptying. This comprehensive approach effectively manages symptoms, making it the best treatment regimen.
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