Isky, a 65-year-old female, is admitted to the hospital after experiencing sudden weakness or and numbness on the right side or of her body, along with difficulty speaking. Isky has a medical history that includes hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and smoking. This type Which of stroke is Isky most likely experiencing based on the sudden onset of her symptoms?
Hemorrhagic stroke
Ischemic stroke
Transient ischemic attack
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Hemorrhagic stroke often causes headache and severe neurological deficits, not just sudden weakness. Ischemic stroke, from a clot, fits Isky’s sudden focal symptoms, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Ischemic stroke, caused by arterial occlusion, presents with sudden weakness, numbness, and speech issues, as seen in Isky. Her risk factors (hypertension, diabetes, smoking) support this, making it correct.
Choice C reason: Transient ischemic attack resolves quickly, unlike Isky’s ongoing symptoms. Ischemic stroke causes persistent deficits, matching her presentation, so this is incorrect for the stroke type.
Choice D reason: Subarachnoid hemorrhage typically involves severe headache, not focal weakness. Ischemic stroke aligns with Isky’s sudden, unilateral symptoms, so this is incorrect for her condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hemorrhagic stroke often causes headache and severe neurological deficits, not just sudden weakness. Ischemic stroke, from a clot, fits Isky’s sudden focal symptoms, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Ischemic stroke, caused by arterial occlusion, presents with sudden weakness, numbness, and speech issues, as seen in Isky. Her risk factors (hypertension, diabetes, smoking) support this, making it correct.
Choice C reason: Transient ischemic attack resolves quickly, unlike Isky’s ongoing symptoms. Ischemic stroke causes persistent deficits, matching her presentation, so this is incorrect for the stroke type.
Choice D reason: Subarachnoid hemorrhage typically involves severe headache, not focal weakness. Ischemic stroke aligns with Isky’s sudden, unilateral symptoms, so this is incorrect for her condition.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis, causing symptoms like dizziness, paresthesia, or tetany due to decreased carbon dioxide levels. It does not cause renal colic, which involves severe, spasmodic flank pain typically from ureteral obstruction. This makes hyperventilation an incorrect cause for the patient’s acute pain presentation.
Choice B reason: Nephrolithiasis, or kidney stones, is the most likely cause of renal colic in a young male. Stones obstruct the ureter, triggering severe, intermittent flank pain radiating to the groin, often with hematuria or nausea. This matches the described acute pain, making nephrolithiasis the correct diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms.
Choice C reason: Urinary tract infections may cause dysuria, frequency, or suprapubic discomfort but rarely produce the severe, colicky flank pain characteristic of renal colic. While infections can coexist with stones, the primary presentation of acute, severe pain points to nephrolithiasis, making this a less likely primary cause.
Choice D reason: Trauma can cause renal pain or hematuria but typically presents with a history of injury and signs like bruising or hemodynamic instability. Renal colic’s hallmark is spontaneous, severe pain without trauma history, making trauma an unlikely cause for this patient’s acute presentation.
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