A 53-year-old man presents with inability to concentrate, itching in his fingers and toes, elevated blood pressure, and unexplained weight loss. He is diagnosed with primary polycythemia vera. What will be the primary goal of his treatment?
To extend the lifespan of his red blood cells
To reduce the mean size of his red blood cells
To reduce the viscosity of his blood
To control his hypertension
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Extending red blood cell lifespan is not a goal in polycythemia vera, where excessive red cell production increases blood viscosity. Treatment aims to reduce cell mass, not prolong cell life, as this would worsen hyperviscosity, making this an incorrect goal.
Choice B reason: Reducing the mean size of red blood cells is irrelevant, as polycythemia vera involves increased red cell count, not size. Treatment focuses on lowering hematocrit to decrease viscosity, not altering cell dimensions, making this an incorrect treatment goal.
Choice C reason: Reducing blood viscosity is the primary goal in polycythemia vera, achieved through phlebotomy or myelosuppressive therapy to lower red cell mass. This alleviates symptoms like itching and prevents thrombotic complications, directly addressing the disease’s pathophysiology, making this correct.
Choice D reason: Controlling hypertension is a secondary concern in polycythemia vera, often resulting from increased blood volume. While managed, the primary goal is reducing blood viscosity to prevent complications, as hypertension is a symptom, not the root cause, making this incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Wheezing is associated with lung conditions or left heart failure, not right-sided heart failure. Peripheral edema results from venous congestion in right heart failure, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Vasospasms are linked to vascular conditions, not right-sided heart failure. Peripheral edema is a hallmark due to fluid backup, so this is incorrect for the manifestation.
Choice C reason: Peripheral edema, swelling in legs or ankles, is a primary manifestation of right-sided heart failure, caused by venous congestion from impaired right heart pumping. This is the correct choice.
Choice D reason: Tingling in extremities is neurological or vascular, not typical of right-sided heart failure. Peripheral edema is more characteristic, so this is incorrect for the manifestation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Release of inflammatory mediators drives inflammation, not angiogenesis. Pathological angiogenesis is excessive or abnormal vessel growth, often in diseases like cancer, so this is incorrect for the term.
Choice B reason: New vessel formation in response to injury is physiological angiogenesis, not pathological. Pathological angiogenesis involves abnormal, excessive growth, so this is incorrect for the described process.
Choice C reason: Pathological angiogenesis is excessive or abnormal blood vessel growth, seen in conditions like tumors or retinopathy. This matches the definition, making it the correct choice for the term.
Choice D reason: Inhibition of vessel formation is anti-angiogenic, not pathological angiogenesis. Excessive vessel growth defines the pathological state, so this is incorrect for the term.
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