A 53-year-old man presents with inability to concentrate, itching in his fingers and toes, elevated blood pressure, and unexplained weight loss. He is diagnosed with primary polycythemia vera. What will be the primary goal of his treatment?
To extend the lifespan of his red blood cells
To reduce the mean size of his red blood cells
To reduce the viscosity of his blood
To control his hypertension
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Extending red blood cell lifespan is not a goal in polycythemia vera, where excessive red cell production increases blood viscosity. Treatment aims to reduce cell mass, not prolong cell life, as this would worsen hyperviscosity, making this an incorrect goal.
Choice B reason: Reducing the mean size of red blood cells is irrelevant, as polycythemia vera involves increased red cell count, not size. Treatment focuses on lowering hematocrit to decrease viscosity, not altering cell dimensions, making this an incorrect treatment goal.
Choice C reason: Reducing blood viscosity is the primary goal in polycythemia vera, achieved through phlebotomy or myelosuppressive therapy to lower red cell mass. This alleviates symptoms like itching and prevents thrombotic complications, directly addressing the disease’s pathophysiology, making this correct.
Choice D reason: Controlling hypertension is a secondary concern in polycythemia vera, often resulting from increased blood volume. While managed, the primary goal is reducing blood viscosity to prevent complications, as hypertension is a symptom, not the root cause, making this incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Latent phase follows seroconversion, not precedes infection. The correct sequence—exposure, infection, seroconversion, AIDS—reflects HIV progression. This option misorders the phases, making it incorrect for AIDS development.
Choice B reason: AIDS progresses through exposure (virus contact), infection (HIV enters body), seroconversion (antibody detection), and AIDS (advanced disease). This sequence accurately describes the disease’s history, making it correct.
Choice C reason: Symptomatic AIDS is not a distinct phase; AIDS itself is symptomatic. The standard progression includes exposure, infection, seroconversion, and AIDS, so “symptomatic AIDS” is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Window phase is part of seroconversion, not separate, and acute phase is early infection. The sequence—exposure, infection, seroconversion, AIDS—is clearer, so this is incorrect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hemorrhagic stroke often causes headache and severe neurological deficits, not just sudden weakness. Ischemic stroke, from a clot, fits Isky’s sudden focal symptoms, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Ischemic stroke, caused by arterial occlusion, presents with sudden weakness, numbness, and speech issues, as seen in Isky. Her risk factors (hypertension, diabetes, smoking) support this, making it correct.
Choice C reason: Transient ischemic attack resolves quickly, unlike Isky’s ongoing symptoms. Ischemic stroke causes persistent deficits, matching her presentation, so this is incorrect for the stroke type.
Choice D reason: Subarachnoid hemorrhage typically involves severe headache, not focal weakness. Ischemic stroke aligns with Isky’s sudden, unilateral symptoms, so this is incorrect for her condition.
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