What is a complete fracture?
Same as a greenstick fracture
Bone damaged but still in one piece
Same as a spiral fracture
Broken all the way through
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: A greenstick fracture is an incomplete break where one side of the bone bends, common in children. A complete fracture fully breaks the bone into separate pieces, making this an incorrect comparison to a complete fracture.
Choice B reason: A bone damaged but in one piece describes an incomplete fracture, like a stress or greenstick fracture. A complete fracture involves a full break with separated fragments, making this an incorrect description of a complete fracture.
Choice C reason: A spiral fracture is a type of complete fracture caused by twisting forces, but not all complete fractures are spiral. Complete fractures broadly involve full bone separation, making this a partially correct but overly specific comparison.
Choice D reason: A complete fracture is when the bone is broken all the way through, separating into two or more fragments. This distinguishes it from incomplete fractures, aligning with the definition, making this the correct explanation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Vasodilation increases blood flow, causing redness and heat, but doesn’t directly cause fluid leakage. Increased capillary permeability allows fluid to escape into tissues, causing edema, so this is incorrect for the primary cause of inflammatory edema.
Choice B reason: Increased capillary permeability, triggered by inflammatory mediators, allows plasma to leak into tissues, causing edema. This is the primary mechanism during inflammation, making it the correct choice for the cause of edema in the process.
Choice C reason: Neutrophil emigration fights infection but doesn’t directly cause fluid accumulation. Capillary permeability changes lead to edema, so this is incorrect for the cause of swelling in inflammation.
Choice D reason: Endothelial cell contraction contributes to permeability but is a secondary mechanism. Increased capillary permeability is the overarching process causing fluid leakage and edema, so this is less precise and incorrect.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Monitoring urine output is critical in sepsis-induced DIC, as it reflects renal perfusion and organ function. Decreased output may indicate hypoperfusion or acute kidney injury from microthrombi, common in DIC, making this a priority assessment to guide fluid and supportive therapy.
Choice B reason: White blood cell count is relevant in sepsis but less specific for DIC progression. It indicates infection severity but does not directly assess DIC’s coagulopathy or organ impact, making it a lower-priority assessment compared to organ function indicators.
Choice C reason: Level of consciousness is a priority, as DIC can cause cerebral microthrombi or hemorrhage, leading to neurological changes. Altered consciousness signals potential brain involvement or systemic hypoperfusion, necessitating immediate intervention, making this a critical assessment in sepsis with DIC.
Choice D reason: Weight assessment is not a priority in acute sepsis with DIC, as it does not directly reflect coagulopathy or organ dysfunction. Fluid shifts may occur, but urine output and other vital signs are more immediate indicators, making this non-essential.
Choice E reason: Oxygen saturation is crucial, as DIC can impair pulmonary perfusion through microthrombi, causing hypoxemia. Sepsis also increases oxygen demand, and low saturation indicates respiratory compromise, making this a priority assessment to ensure adequate oxygenation.
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