What is a complete fracture?
Same as a greenstick fracture
Bone damaged but still in one piece
Same as a spiral fracture
Broken all the way through
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: A greenstick fracture is an incomplete break where one side of the bone bends, common in children. A complete fracture fully breaks the bone into separate pieces, making this an incorrect comparison to a complete fracture.
Choice B reason: A bone damaged but in one piece describes an incomplete fracture, like a stress or greenstick fracture. A complete fracture involves a full break with separated fragments, making this an incorrect description of a complete fracture.
Choice C reason: A spiral fracture is a type of complete fracture caused by twisting forces, but not all complete fractures are spiral. Complete fractures broadly involve full bone separation, making this a partially correct but overly specific comparison.
Choice D reason: A complete fracture is when the bone is broken all the way through, separating into two or more fragments. This distinguishes it from incomplete fractures, aligning with the definition, making this the correct explanation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Increased permeability and leakage occur at an injury site due to histamine and cytokine release, causing endothelial gaps. This allows plasma and immune cells to enter tissues, promoting inflammation and edema, making this a correct vascular change.
Choice B reason: Blood vessels initially constrict to limit bleeding, then dilate to increase blood flow, delivering immune cells and nutrients. This biphasic response (constriction followed by dilation) is a hallmark of acute injury, making this a correct vascular change.
Choice C reason: Pallor occurs from initial vasoconstriction, reducing blood flow, followed by swelling from increased permeability and fluid leakage. These are typical injury responses, reflecting vascular and tissue changes, making this a correct observation.
Choice D reason: “None of the above” is incorrect, as increased permeability, biphasic vessel response, and pallor with swelling are well-documented vascular changes at injury sites. These align with the inflammatory process, making this an invalid choice.
Choice E reason: Tightening of capillary endothelial junctions does not occur during acute injury. Junctions loosen due to inflammatory mediators, increasing permeability, not tightening, which would limit leakage, making this an incorrect vascular change.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Red blood cells are not a direct measure of inflammation; they assess anemia or oxygen-carrying capacity. Inflammation is measured by WBC, ESR, and fever, which reflect immune activity and systemic response, so this is incorrect for inflammation measurement.
Choice B reason: White blood cells (WBC) increase during inflammation (leukocytosis), indicating immune activation. This is a standard laboratory measure of inflammatory processes, making it a correct choice for assessing inflammation in clinical practice.
Choice C reason: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures how quickly red blood cells settle, rising with inflammation due to increased proteins. It’s a common marker for inflammatory conditions, making it a correct selection for measuring inflammation.
Choice D reason: Fever is a clinical sign of inflammation, driven by cytokines like IL-6. It’s a systemic response measured via temperature, making it a correct choice for assessing inflammation alongside laboratory markers like WBC and ESR.
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