What is a complete fracture?
Same as a greenstick fracture
Bone damaged but still in one piece
Same as a spiral fracture
Broken all the way through
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: A greenstick fracture is an incomplete break where one side of the bone bends, common in children. A complete fracture fully breaks the bone into separate pieces, making this an incorrect comparison to a complete fracture.
Choice B reason: A bone damaged but in one piece describes an incomplete fracture, like a stress or greenstick fracture. A complete fracture involves a full break with separated fragments, making this an incorrect description of a complete fracture.
Choice C reason: A spiral fracture is a type of complete fracture caused by twisting forces, but not all complete fractures are spiral. Complete fractures broadly involve full bone separation, making this a partially correct but overly specific comparison.
Choice D reason: A complete fracture is when the bone is broken all the way through, separating into two or more fragments. This distinguishes it from incomplete fractures, aligning with the definition, making this the correct explanation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Increased glucose use doesn’t occur in DKA; insulin deficiency reduces glucose uptake. Fluid shifts are due to osmotic diuresis, not intravascular to intracellular movement, so this is incorrect for DKA’s mechanism.
Choice B reason: DKA involves metabolic, not respiratory, acidosis from ketones. Protein catabolism occurs, but fatty acid use and ketogenesis are primary, leading to acidosis and diuresis, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Increased glucose and fatty acids contribute, but the mechanism is decreased glucose use causing ketogenesis. This option omits ketogenesis, a key DKA feature, so it’s less precise and incorrect.
Choice D reason: Insulin deficiency in DKA reduces glucose use, leading to fatty acid breakdown, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis (pH 7.2), and osmotic diuresis (electrolyte loss). This fully explains the lab values, making it correct.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Platelet plug formation (activation, adhesion, aggregation) is a key hemostasis stage, initiating clotting. Hypercoagulability is a pathological state, not a normal stage, so this is incorrect as the exception.
Choice B reason: Blood coagulation, forming a fibrin clot, is a core hemostasis stage, stabilizing the platelet plug. Hypercoagulability is not a standard stage, so this is incorrect for the exception.
Choice C reason: Hypercoagulability is a pathological condition increasing clotting risk, not a normal hemostasis stage. Vessel spasm, platelet plug, and coagulation are standard stages, making this the correct exception.
Choice D reason: Vessel spasm (vasoconstriction) is the initial hemostasis stage, reducing blood flow to the injury. Hypercoagulability is not a stage, so this is incorrect as the exception.
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