Mr. Jones tells you that he really has a lot of pain when he walks, and it is very painful but as soon as he stops walking, the pain resides. Mr. Jones does have a history of peripheral artery disease. What is going on with Mr. Jones?
Deep vein thrombosis
Valvular regurgitation
Varicose veins
Intermittent claudication
The Correct Answer is D
A. Deep vein thrombosis: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) typically presents with swelling, pain, and tenderness in a specific area of the leg. It does not specifically cause pain that resolves with rest after walking, making it less likely in Mr. Jones's case.
B. Valvular regurgitation: Valvular regurgitation refers to the backward flow of blood due to improper closure of heart valves. This condition primarily affects cardiac function and is not associated with pain in the legs that resolves with rest, which does not correlate with Mr. Jones's symptoms.
C. Varicose veins: Varicose veins can cause discomfort, swelling, and aching in the legs but are not typically characterized by pain that is specifically triggered by walking and resolves with rest. The symptoms of varicose veins usually occur with prolonged standing or sitting rather than exertion.
D. Intermittent claudication: Intermittent claudication is a common symptom of peripheral artery disease (PAD), characterized by muscle pain or cramping in the legs during physical activity, such as walking, that resolves with rest. Mr. Jones's description of pain that occurs while walking and subsides upon stopping aligns with this condition, making it the most appropriate explanation for his symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Thoracotomy: Thoracotomy involves opening the chest cavity to access the heart and lungs; this surgical approach is not the first-line treatment for pericardial effusion and is more invasive than necessary, potentially leading to increased recovery time and complications.
B. Pericardiocentesis: Pericardiocentesis involves inserting a needle into the pericardial space to remove excess fluid; this procedure is a common and effective treatment for symptomatic large pericardial effusions, providing rapid relief of symptoms such as dyspnea and chest pain while also allowing for diagnostic evaluation of the fluid.
C. Heart catheterization: Heart catheterization involves a diagnostic procedure to assess heart function and blood flow through the coronary arteries; while it provides valuable information regarding cardiac conditions, it is not indicated for treating pericardial effusion and does not address the underlying fluid accumulation.
D. Pericardiectomy: Pericardiectomy involves removing part or all of the pericardium; this surgical procedure is typically reserved for chronic cases or constrictive pericarditis, as it is more invasive and not the immediate treatment option for an acute pericardial effusion, where less invasive options are preferred.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Antibody production against the offending fungi is delayed by the patient's age and the virulence of the organism: In older adults, the immune response may be slower or less effective due to age-related changes in the immune system. The virulence of Histoplasma capsulatum can also contribute to the severity of the infection, making it more difficult for the immune system to mount an effective response quickly, which explains the symptoms of fever, nausea, and vomiting.
B. Macrophages are able to remove the offending fungi from the bloodstream but can't destroy them: While macrophages play a crucial role in the immune response to fungi, in the case of histoplasmosis, they often engulf the fungi but may struggle to completely eradicate them, especially in immunocompromised individuals or the elderly. However, this option does not fully explain the delayed symptoms associated with the patient's age and the organism's virulence.
C. Spore inhalation initiates an autoimmune response that produces the associated symptoms: Histoplasmosis is caused by inhaling spores of Histoplasma capsulatum, but the symptoms are not the result of an autoimmune response. Instead, the immune system's attempt to combat the infection leads to the clinical manifestations, not an autoimmune process.
D. Toxin production by Histoplasma capsulatum is triggering an immune response: Histoplasma capsulatum does not produce toxins that directly trigger an immune response. Instead, the immune response is primarily due to the presence of the fungi themselves and the inflammatory response they provoke, which leads to the associated symptoms of the infection.
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