A patient has pulmonary edema. For what condition should the healthcare professional assess the patient as the priority?
Aortic stenosis
Left-sided heart failure
Mitral valve prolapse
Right-sided heart failure
The Correct Answer is B
A. Aortic stenosis: Aortic stenosis can lead to heart failure due to left ventricular outflow obstruction, but it is not the most direct cause of pulmonary edema. This condition may present with other symptoms, such as chest pain or syncope, rather than fluid accumulation in the lungs.
B. Left-sided heart failure: Left-sided heart failure is a primary cause of pulmonary edema, as it leads to increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation and fluid leakage into the alveoli. Assessing for this condition is crucial, as it directly contributes to the patient's pulmonary edema and requires immediate management.
C. Mitral valve prolapse: Mitral valve prolapse can cause mitral regurgitation and lead to heart failure, but it is less commonly associated with acute pulmonary edema compared to left-sided heart failure. While assessment is important, it is not the priority in this scenario.
D. Right-sided heart failure: Right-sided heart failure typically leads to systemic congestion and peripheral edema rather than pulmonary edema. While it can coexist with left-sided heart failure, it is not the primary concern when assessing a patient specifically for pulmonary edema.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A woman presenting with malaise, lethargy, and copious nasal secretions: These symptoms are more indicative of a common cold or viral upper respiratory infection. While nasal secretions can occur in rhinosinusitis, the absence of facial pain or pressure suggests a cold rather than sinus involvement.
B. A man with a dry, stuffy nasopharynx, a sore throat, and temperature of 98.9°F: This presentation is typical of a common cold or upper respiratory infection. The symptoms of a dry, stuffy nasopharynx and sore throat are not specifically indicative of rhinosinusitis, which usually involves more pronounced nasal and facial symptoms.
C. A man complaining of general fatigue, a headache, and facial pain with a temperature of 100.9°F: This combination of symptoms strongly suggests rhinosinusitis. The presence of facial pain, headache, and fever indicates inflammation and infection of the sinuses, which is characteristic of rhinosinusitis rather than a common cold.
D. A woman complaining of generalized aches and who has a hoarse voice and reddened, painful upper airways: These symptoms align more closely with a viral upper respiratory infection or laryngitis. The absence of specific sinus-related symptoms such as facial pain or nasal obstruction makes rhinosinusitis less likely in this case.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Prolonged PR interval: A prolonged PR interval is typically indicative of first-degree atrioventricular (AV) block and does not specifically relate to the presence of myocardial infarction (MI) that extends through the myocardium.
B. ST depression: ST depression can indicate subendocardial ischemia, but it is not a definitive change associated with a full-thickness myocardial infarction. It is more commonly seen during stress testing or in cases of angina rather than a transmural infarction.
C. ST elevation: ST elevation is a characteristic finding in cases of transmural myocardial infarction (MI), indicating that the injury extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium. This elevation occurs due to the acute injury to the myocardial cells, leading to changes in the electrical activity as reflected on the ECG.
D. Prolonged QT interval: A prolonged QT interval is associated with an increased risk of arrhythmias but does not specifically indicate a myocardial infarction that penetrates through the myocardium. It is generally not directly related to the ischemic process of an MI.
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