A client who is receiving pregabalin for fibromyalgia complains of tremors in the hands. Which action should the nurse implement?

Administer a PRN dose of an antianxiety drug.

Obtain orthostatic blood pressure readings.

Notify the healthcare provider.

Collect a capillary glucose level.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason:

Administering a PRN dose of an antianxiety drug might seem like a reasonable action if the tremors are related to anxiety. However, without a clear indication that anxiety is the cause of the tremors, this action could mask the underlying issue and delay appropriate treatment. It is essential to identify the root cause of the tremors before administering any medication.

Choice B reason:

Obtaining orthostatic blood pressure readings is a useful assessment for determining if the client has orthostatic hypotension, which can cause dizziness and fainting. However, this action is not directly related to the complaint of hand tremors. While it is a good practice to monitor vital signs, it does not address the immediate concern of tremors caused by pregabalin.

Choice C reason:

Notifying the healthcare provider is the most appropriate action. Tremors can be a side effect of pregabalin12. The healthcare provider needs to be informed to evaluate the severity of the side effect and decide whether to adjust the medication dosage or switch to an alternative treatment. This ensures that the client receives the most appropriate care and avoids potential complications.

Choice D reason:

Collecting a capillary glucose level is important for clients with diabetes or those at risk of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. However, there is no indication in the scenario that the client has diabetes or that blood glucose levels are related to the tremors. Therefore, this action is not directly relevant to the client’s current complaint.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Teaching the client about foods high in calcium is important, but it is not the most immediate action required. A serum calcium level of 5.5 mg/dL is significantly below the normal range (8.5-10.2 mg/dL) and indicates severe hypocalcemia. While dietary education is beneficial for long-term management, the nurse must first address the acute issue by notifying the healthcare provider.

Choice B reason:

Beginning to taper the drug dose per protocol is not appropriate without consulting the healthcare provider. Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, can cause decreased calcium absorption and increased calcium excretion. However, any changes to the medication regimen should be directed by the healthcare provider, especially in the context of severe hypocalcemia.

Choice C reason:

Notifying the healthcare provider of the finding is the most critical action. Severe hypocalcemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, muscle spasms, and seizures. Immediate medical intervention is necessary to correct the calcium imbalance and prevent potential life-threatening conditions.

Choice D reason:

Administering the medication with a glass of milk is not sufficient to address the severe hypocalcemia. While milk contains calcium, the amount is not enough to correct a serum calcium level as low as 5.5 mg/dL. The nurse must prioritize notifying the healthcare provider to ensure appropriate treatment is initiated.

Word count: 500 words.

A. Eliminates urinary bacteria. B. Use the medication after voiding after sexual intercourse. C. Calms spasms in the urinary tract. D. Provides an analgesic effect for irritated bladder mucosa.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Phenazopyridine does not eliminate urinary bacteria. It is not an antibiotic and does not have antibacterial properties. Instead, it is used to relieve symptoms such as pain, burning, and discomfort caused by irritation of the urinary tract. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.

Choice B reason:

Using phenazopyridine after voiding or after sexual intercourse is not a standard recommendation. This medication is typically taken after meals to reduce stomach upset. It is not specifically indicated for use after sexual intercourse, and this choice does not align with the typical usage instructions for phenazopyridine.

Choice C reason:

Phenazopyridine does not calm spasms in the urinary tract. Its primary function is to provide symptomatic relief from pain, burning, and discomfort in the urinary tract. It does not have antispasmodic properties, so this choice is also incorrect.

Choice D reason:

Phenazopyridine provides an analgesic effect for irritated bladder mucosa. It works by numbing the lining of the urinary tract, which helps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with conditions like cystitis. This is the correct therapeutic effect of the medication.

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A client who is receiving pregabalin for fibromyalgia complains of tremors in the hands. Which action should the nurse implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Prior to administering an oral dose of methylprednisolone, the nurse determines the client’s serum total calcium level is 5.5 mg/dL (1.375 mmol/L). What action is most important for the nurse to take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client with cystitis receives a prescription for phenazopyridine. Which information should the nurse explain to the client about its therapeutic effect?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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