The nurse is planning health teaching for a client starting on donepezil for Alzheimer’s disease (AD). For which side effect will the nurse teach the family to monitor?
Low oxygen saturation
High blood pressure
Elevated body temperature
Low pulse rate
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason:
Low oxygen saturation is not a common side effect of donepezil. Donepezil is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to treat symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease by increasing the levels of acetylcholine in the brain. While it can have various side effects, respiratory issues like low oxygen saturation are not typically associated with this medication. Therefore, monitoring for low oxygen saturation is not a primary concern for patients starting donepezil.
Choice B Reason:
High blood pressure is also not a common side effect of donepezil. The medication primarily affects the central nervous system and does not typically cause significant changes in blood pressure. While it is always important to monitor a patient’s overall health, high blood pressure is not a side effect specifically linked to donepezil use. Therefore, it is not a primary focus for monitoring in this context.
Choice C Reason:
Elevated body temperature is not commonly associated with donepezil. The side effects of donepezil are more likely to involve gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, as well as muscle cramps and fatigue. Elevated body temperature is not a typical reaction to this medication, so it is not a primary concern for monitoring.
Choice D Reason:
Low pulse rate, or bradycardia, is a known side effect of donepezil. Donepezil can increase the levels of acetylcholine, which can affect the heart’s electrical conduction system and lead to a slower heart rate. This can be particularly concerning in elderly patients or those with pre-existing heart conditions. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to teach the family to monitor the client’s pulse rate regularly and report any significant decreases to the healthcare provider.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Telling his wife what the client needs is not the most effective discharge action. While it is important for the wife to understand the client’s needs, this approach is too passive and does not actively engage the client or his wife in the care process. Effective management of Parkinson’s disease requires active participation from both the client and the caregiver to ensure adherence to the care plan and to address any concerns or preferences they may have.
Choice B Reason:
Setting up visitations by a home health nurse can be beneficial, but it is not the most effective discharge action on its own. Home health nurses can provide valuable support and monitoring, but the success of the management plan also depends on the involvement and commitment of the client and his wife. Without their active participation, the care plan may not be fully effective.
Choice C Reason:
Involving the client and his wife in developing a plan of care is the most effective discharge action. This approach ensures that both the client and his wife are fully engaged in the care process, understand the management plan, and are more likely to adhere to it. Collaborative care planning allows for the consideration of the client’s and caregiver’s preferences, needs, and concerns, leading to a more personalized and effective care plan. This active involvement can also empower the client and his wife, improving their confidence in managing the disease.
Choice D Reason:
Writing up a detailed plan of care according to standards is important, but it is not the most effective discharge action if done in isolation. A standardized care plan may not address the unique needs and preferences of the client and his wife. Without their involvement in the development of the plan, there may be a lack of understanding or commitment to the care plan, reducing its effectiveness. Personalizing the care plan through active involvement of the client and his wife is crucial for successful management.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Thirst is a common and expected symptom after an EGD, especially if the client has been fasting before the procedure. It does not typically indicate a complication and can be managed by gradually reintroducing fluids as tolerated. Therefore, thirst does not require further nursing assessment beyond routine post-procedure care.
Choice B Reason:
A sore throat is also a common symptom following an EGD. The procedure involves passing an endoscope through the throat, which can cause temporary irritation and discomfort. This symptom usually resolves on its own within a few days and does not indicate a serious complication. Therefore, a sore throat does not require further nursing assessment beyond providing comfort measures such as lozenges or warm saltwater gargles.
Choice C Reason:
Abdominal distention is a concerning symptom that requires further nursing assessment. It can indicate complications such as perforation, bleeding, or infection following the EGD. Perforation of the gastrointestinal tract is a rare but serious complication that can lead to peritonitis and sepsis if not promptly addressed. Therefore, any signs of abdominal distention should be reported to the provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention.
Choice D Reason:
Drowsiness is a common side effect of the sedatives used during the EGD procedure. It is expected that the client may feel drowsy or sleepy for a few hours after the procedure as the sedative wears off. This symptom does not typically require further nursing assessment unless it persists for an unusually long time or is accompanied by other concerning symptoms such as difficulty breathing or altered mental status.
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