A nurse is preparing to administer verapamil to a client who is 2 days post-myocardial infarction. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following outcomes as a therapeutic response to the medication?
Increased heart rate
Increased blood pressure
Decreased pulmonary congestion
Decreased anginal pain
The Correct Answer is D
A. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically decreases heart rate rather than increases it. Therefore, an increased heart rate would not be a therapeutic response to this medication.
B. Verapamil works to lower blood pressure by inhibiting calcium influx into the vascular smooth muscle. An increase in blood pressure would not be an expected therapeutic outcome.
C. While verapamil may help with heart function, the primary therapeutic response is not specifically measured by decreased pulmonary congestion. This outcome may not be directly observable in the early treatment phases post-myocardial infarction.
D. Verapamil is effective in reducing anginal pain by decreasing myocardial oxygen demand through lowering heart rate and contractility. Thus, a decrease in anginal pain would be a direct therapeutic response to the medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Increase fluids while taking the medication: Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth and constipation. Increasing fluid intake helps to mitigate these effects and prevent dehydration and constipation.
B. Expect an elevation in blood pressure with initial doses of the medication: Amitriptyline can cause orthostatic hypotension rather than elevated blood pressure. Clients should be informed about the risk of dizziness or fainting.
C. Stop the medication immediately if urine becomes orange in color: Orange urine is not a common side effect of amitriptyline. Clients should not stop the medication without consulting their provider.
D. Take the medication in the morning: Amitriptyline has sedative effects and is typically taken at night to help manage sleep disturbances and reduce daytime drowsiness.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes urine production but is not indicated for treating bladder distention or urinary retention post-surgery.
B. Lorazepam is an anxiolytic medication and does not address urinary retention or bladder distention.
C. Bethanechol is a cholinergic agent that stimulates bladder contraction and is used to treat urinary retention. It helps to facilitate voiding in clients who have difficulty.
D. Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that can actually inhibit bladder contraction, making it inappropriate for this situation.
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