A nurse is preparing to administer verapamil to a client who is 2 days post-myocardial infarction. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following outcomes as a therapeutic response to the medication?

Increased heart rate

Increased blood pressure

Decreased pulmonary congestion

Decreased anginal pain

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically decreases heart rate rather than increases it. Therefore, an increased heart rate would not be a therapeutic response to this medication.

B. Verapamil works to lower blood pressure by inhibiting calcium influx into the vascular smooth muscle. An increase in blood pressure would not be an expected therapeutic outcome.

C. While verapamil may help with heart function, the primary therapeutic response is not specifically measured by decreased pulmonary congestion. This outcome may not be directly observable in the early treatment phases post-myocardial infarction.

D. Verapamil is effective in reducing anginal pain by decreasing myocardial oxygen demand through lowering heart rate and contractility. Thus, a decrease in anginal pain would be a direct therapeutic response to the medication.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. A respiratory rate of 24/min is elevated and may suggest respiratory distress, but it is not a specific adverse effect of propranolol.

B. An oral temperature of 38.9° C (102° F) indicates fever, which is not a typical adverse effect of propranolol.

C. A blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not indicate an adverse effect of propranolol, which is often used to manage hypertension.

D. An apical pulse of 50/min indicates bradycardia, a known adverse effect of propranolol, which can occur due to its action on the heart rate.

A. Muscle stiffness B. Constipation C. Dry mouth D. Daytime drowsiness

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Muscle stiffness can indicate extrapyramidal symptoms or early neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which are potentially life-threatening complications of haloperidol overdose. Prompt assessment and intervention are critical to prevent serious harm.

B. Constipation is a common side effect of haloperidol due to anticholinergic effects, but it develops gradually and is not immediately dangerous.

C. Dry mouth is also an anticholinergic side effect, causing discomfort but not posing an acute threat to the client’s safety.

D. Daytime drowsiness is a frequent effect of haloperidol, especially at high doses, but it is less immediately dangerous than neuromuscular complications.

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A nurse is preparing to administer verapamil to a client who is 2 days post-myocardial infarction. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following outcomes as a therapeutic response to the medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is obtaining vital signs for a client who has been taking propranolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for haloperidol 0.5 mg PO three times daily. The medication administration record shows that the client received 5 mg per dose on the previous day. Which of the following manifestations is the nurse's priority to assess?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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