A nurse is caring for a client who has recurrent lower urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Ganciclovir

Amphotericin B

Azithromycin

Nitrofurantoin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Ganciclovir: Ganciclovir is an antiviral medication used primarily to treat viral infections such as cytomegalovirus (CMV), not bacterial infections like UTIs.

B. Amphotericin B: Amphotericin B is an antifungal agent used to treat serious fungal infections, not bacterial UTIs.

C. Azithromycin: Azithromycin is an antibiotic that is effective against a broad range of bacterial infections but is not commonly used for treating recurrent UTIs.

D. Nitrofurantoin: Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic commonly used to prevent and treat recurrent lower urinary tract infections due to its efficacy in targeting the bacteria that typically cause UTIs.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes urine production but is not indicated for treating bladder distention or urinary retention post-surgery.

B. Lorazepam is an anxiolytic medication and does not address urinary retention or bladder distention.

C. Bethanechol is a cholinergic agent that stimulates bladder contraction and is used to treat urinary retention. It helps to facilitate voiding in clients who have difficulty.

D. Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that can actually inhibit bladder contraction, making it inappropriate for this situation.

A. Request a serum trough level blood draw for 60 min after completion of infusion. B. Change the infusion site after each dose administration. C. Contact the provider for prescription clarification. D. Request a serum peak level to be drawn 30 min prior to infusion.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Requesting a serum trough level blood draw for 60 min after completion of infusion is incorrect. Trough levels should be drawn just before the next dose (not after infusion completion) to ensure therapeutic drug levels and avoid toxicity.
B. Changing the infusion site after each dose administration is incorrect. Vancomycin can cause phlebitis, but routine site changes after every dose are unnecessary unless signs of irritation or infiltration are present.
C. Contacting the provider for prescription clarification is correct. Vancomycin should be infused over at least 60 minutes to reduce the risk of Red Man Syndrome, a histamine reaction that can cause flushing, hypotension, and rash. A 30-minute infusion is too rapid and should be adjusted.
D. Requesting a serum peak level to be drawn 30 min prior to infusion is incorrect. Peak levels are drawn 30–60 minutes after infusion completion, not before infusion. Trough levels, not peak levels, are used to monitor vancomycin dosing.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has recurrent lower urinary tract infections (UTIs). Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty voiding following surgery. The nurse notes palpable bladder distention. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to the client?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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