The client hears the word “match.” The client replies, “A match is a catch. A catch is a batch. The batch started to hatch.” Which communication pattern does the nurse identify?
Word salad.
Loose association.
Clang association.
Ideas of reference.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason:
Word salad.
Word salad refers to a jumble of words and phrases that lack logical coherence, often seen in severe cases of schizophrenia. The speech is typically incomprehensible and does not follow any recognizable pattern. In this case, the client’s response, while unusual, follows a pattern based on sound rather than meaning, which does not fit the definition of word salad.
Choice B Reason:
Loose association.
Loose association involves a series of thoughts that are only loosely connected to each other. This is a common symptom in schizophrenia, where the person’s thoughts may drift from one topic to another with little logical connection. However, the client’s response in this scenario is more structured and based on rhyming, which is characteristic of clang associations rather than loose associations.
Choice C Reason:
Clang association.
Clang association is a type of thought disorder where the person’s speech is governed by the sound of words rather than their meaning. This often results in rhyming or punning speech. The client’s response, “A match is a catch. A catch is a batch. The batch started to hatch,” is a clear example of clang association because the words are linked by their similar sounds rather than their meanings.
Choice D Reason:
Ideas of reference.
Ideas of reference involve the belief that ordinary events, objects, or behaviors of others have particular and unusual significance specifically for the person. This is often seen in paranoid schizophrenia. The client’s response does not indicate that they believe the words have special personal significance; instead, it shows a pattern of rhyming, which is more indicative of clang association.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Pseudo-Parkinsonian side effects, also known as drug-induced parkinsonism, can occur with the use of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. These side effects include symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, tremor, and postural instability. However, the description of the client’s neck arched sharply backward is more indicative of an acute dystonic reaction rather than pseudo-Parkinsonian side effects. Pseudo-Parkinsonian symptoms typically develop more gradually and do not present with such dramatic posturing.
Choice B Reason:
While some side effects of haloperidol can be temporary and may disappear after several days, the acute dystonic reaction described in the scenario requires immediate intervention. Acute dystonic reactions are characterized by sudden, severe muscle contractions that can be painful and potentially dangerous if they involve the airway. Therefore, it is crucial to address this reaction promptly rather than waiting for it to resolve on its own.
Choice C Reason:
Increasing the dosage of haloperidol in response to the described symptoms would likely exacerbate the situation. The client’s symptoms are not indicative of worsening psychotic behavior but rather an adverse reaction to the medication. Increasing the dosage could lead to more severe side effects and complications. The appropriate response is to treat the acute dystonic reaction and reassess the medication regimen.
Choice D Reason:
An acute dystonic reaction is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It involves sudden, severe muscle contractions, often affecting the neck, face, and back. This reaction can be distressing and requires immediate treatment with anticholinergic medications such as benztropine or diphenhydramine. Prompt intervention can relieve the symptoms and prevent further complications.

Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Clonazepam is to be used for long-term therapy in conjunction with buspirone.
This statement is incorrect. Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, is typically used for short-term relief of anxiety symptoms due to its potential for dependence and tolerance1. Long-term use of benzodiazepines is generally avoided in favor of medications like buspirone, which do not carry the same risks of dependence.
Choice B Reason:
Clonazepam is to be used short-term until the buspirone takes full effect.
This is the correct response. Buspirone takes several weeks to achieve its full therapeutic effect. During this period, clonazepam may be used to manage acute anxiety symptoms. Once buspirone reaches its full effect, clonazepam can be tapered off to avoid long-term use and potential dependence.

Choice C Reason:
Buspirone should be taken as needed until clonazepam takes full effect.
This statement is incorrect. Buspirone is not intended for as-needed use; it must be taken consistently to maintain stable blood levels and achieve its therapeutic effect. Clonazepam, on the other hand, is used for short-term relief and should not be relied upon for long-term management of anxiety.
Choice D Reason:
Tolerance could result with long-term use of buspirone.
This statement is incorrect. Unlike benzodiazepines, buspirone does not typically cause tolerance or dependence with long-term use. It is considered a safer option for chronic management of anxiety disorders.
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