The nurse is caring for a male patient who complains about a small "lump" that he discovered in his right testicle. What would be the best response by the nurse?

"Is the 'lump' painful?"

"Have you had any trouble urinating?"

"Have you had unprotected sex recently?"

"Do you have any discharge from your penis?"

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   This response is relevant and helps assess the characteristics of the lump. Pain can be an important factor in differentiating between conditions, such as epididymitis, testicular torsion, or tumors. However, while it is a useful question, it may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the situation.
B.   This question can be relevant depending on the underlying cause of the lump. Issues with urination may suggest a problem related to the prostate or bladder rather than the testicle itself. While it can help assess urinary tract involvement, it may not directly address the significance of the lump in the testicle.
C.   This question is important in the context of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), which can cause scrotal swelling or lumps due to conditions like epididymitis or orchitis. However, it does not directly assess the lump itself, making it less focused on the immediate concern.
D.   This question addresses the possibility of an STI and related conditions. While it is relevant, it is not the best immediate question concerning the lump in the testicle. The presence of discharge may not directly correlate with the testicular lump itself.

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. A calcaneal spur, or heel spur, is a bony growth on the heel bone. This condition is primarily related to foot pain and does not have a direct link to the risk of stroke. It is not relevant in assessing stroke risk.
B. This elevated blood pressure reading indicates hypertension, which is a significant risk factor for both ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes. Chronic high blood pressure can lead to damage of the blood vessels, making them more susceptible to rupture, thus increasing the risk of a hemorrhagic stroke.
C. A glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) level of 5.9% indicates well-managed diabetes, typically within the normal range for most individuals. While uncontrolled diabetes is a risk factor for vascular disease, this level suggests adequate control and does not specifically indicate an increased risk for a hemorrhagic stroke.
D. A recent endoscopy itself does not indicate a direct risk for a hemorrhagic stroke. However, if the endoscopy was performed due to gastrointestinal bleeding or if it resulted in complications, there could be indirect implications, but this option alone does not signify an increased risk for hemorrhagic stroke.

A. 1500 B. 1200 C. 1100 D. 0200

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. 1500 is 8 hours after 0700, which is too long for the remaining fluid to last.
B. 1200 is 5 hours after 0700, which means there would still be fluid left in the bag at this time.
C. 1100 is exactly 4 hours after 0700, which aligns with our calculation of when the remaining 500 mL will be finished.
D. 0200 is 19 hours after 0700, which is far too late for the IV fluid to last.

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The nurse is caring for a male patient who complains about a small "lump" that he discovered in his right testicle. What would be the best response by the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which assessment data would indicate to the nurse that the client would be at risk for a hemorrhagic stroke?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse receives report at 0700 on a client who has 500 mL of IV fluid left in the bag. The IV is running at 125 mL per hour. At what time should the nurse expect to change the bag (military time)?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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