The client presents with a complaint of "always dropping things and falling down." During the neurologic assessment, the nurse notices the client is unable to perform rapid alternating movements. Instead the client's response is very slow and misses often. What neurologic dysfunction would the nurse suspect?

inability to understand directions

Lesion of cranial nerve IX

Dysfunction of the cerebellum

Vestibular disease

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Inability to understand directions
The client's issue is with motor coordination, not comprehension.

B. Lesion of cranial nerve IX
Cranial nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal) is associated with swallowing and taste, not motor coordination.

C. Dysfunction of the cerebellum
The cerebellum controls coordination and fine motor movements. The client's inability to perform rapid alternating movements (dysdiadochokinesia) suggests cerebellar dysfunction.

D. Vestibular disease
Vestibular disorders cause dizziness, vertigo, and balance problems but do not typically affect rapid alternating movements.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Atropine 1 mg IV push

A C3 spinal cord injury disrupts sympathetic control, causing bradycardia. Atropine is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia.

B. Epinephrine 1 mg IV

Epinephrine is used for cardiac arrest, not initial management of bradycardia.

C. Adenosine 6 mg IV push

Adenosine is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia.

D. Milrinone 50 mcg/kg IV push

Milrinone is an inotrope used in heart failure, not bradycardia.

A. Vocalization, strength, and pupillary response and accommodation B. Eye opening. verbal response, and motor response C. Pupillary reaction, eye opening, and motor response D. Motor response. sensory response, and level of consciousness

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Vocalization, strength, and pupillary response and accommodation are not components of GCS. Strength testing is part of a motor exam, and pupillary response is part of a cranial nerve assessment.

B. Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response are the three components of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), which assesses a client’s neurological status and level of consciousness.

C. Pupillary reaction, eye opening, and motor response is incorrect because pupillary reaction is not a component of the GCS.

D. Motor response, sensory response, and level of consciousness is incorrect because sensory response is not a part of the GCS.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury at C3. The nurse notices on the cardiac monitor a heart rate of 30 beats per minute & upon assessment of the patient, a change in mental status. What medication does the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the physician STAT?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

What is included when the nurse performs the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) on a client?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Which of the following measures would the nurse emphasize to assist the client diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia in managing their pain?

The nurse is caring for a burn victim during the emergent phase. Assessment findings include white charred leathery wounds over 72% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA). Following intubation and mechanical ventilation, what is the priority intervention?

The nurse is preparing to start a transfusion of packed red blood cells. Which IV site should the nurse use?

The nurse is caring for a client with SOB, wheezes, urticaria, itching and angioedema after receiving vancomycin IV. What is the priority nursing intervention after stopping the medication? Administer:

How would the nurse position the client with burns of the head, neck, chest, right arm and hand to prevent contractures?

The nurse cannot auscultate bowel sounds during the assessment of a client who has had a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm four days ago. The client is complaining of severe abdominal pain and the abdomen is distended. What action should the nurse take at this time?