The nurse in the women's health clinic has four patients who are waiting to be seen. Which patient should the nurse see first?
A 42-yr-old patient with secondary amenorrhea who says that her last menstrual cycle was 3 months ago
A 19-yr-old patient with menorrhagia who has been using superabsorbent tampons and has fever with weakness
A 22-yr-old patient with persistent red-brown vaginal drainage 3 days after having balloon thermotherapy
A 35-yr-old patient with heavy spotting after having a progestin-containing IUD (Mirena) inserted a month ago
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: The 42-yr-old patient with secondary amenorrhea may have menopause, pregnancy, or a hormonal disorder. This is less urgent compared to the 19- year old patient.
Choice B rationale: This patient may have toxic shock syndrome, which is a life- threatening complication of tampon use that can cause organ failure and shock. The nurse should assess the patient's vital signs, remove the tampon, and initiate fluid resuscitation and antibiotic therapy.
Choice C rationale: This patient may have an infection or a complication of the balloon thermotherapy, which is a procedure to destroy the endometrial lining of the uterus and is not an emergency compared to the 19 year old.
Choice D rationale: This patient may have a displacement or perforation of the IUD, which is a contraceptive device that releases progestin into the uterus. However, this is not urgent compared to the 19 year old.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The signs and symptoms of urinary catheter obstruction include hematuria with clots, bladder spasms, and a feeling of urinary urgency. The nurse should increase the rate of the continuous bladder irrigation to flush out the clots and relieve the obstruction. The nurse should also monitor the client's vital signs, fluid balance, and pain level. The other options are not consistent with the client's presentation.
Choice B rationale: Shock would cause hypotension, tachycardia, and decreased urine output.
Choice C rationale: Hyponatremia would cause confusion, weakness, and seizures.
Choice D rationale: Urinary tract infection would cause fever, chills, and foul-smelling urine.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The combination treats gonorrhea and chlamydia but not trichomonas.
Choice B rationale: While important, this combination aims to treat multiple potential infections, not solely prevent reinfection.
Choice C rationale: The dual therapy doesn’t cover syphilis; it's specifically targeted for gonorrhea and chlamydia.
Choice D rationale: Azithromycin covers both gonorrhea and chlamydia, so the combination ensures coverage for both possible infections.
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