The nurse in the women's health clinic has four patients who are waiting to be seen. Which patient should the nurse see first?
A 42-yr-old patient with secondary amenorrhea who says that her last menstrual cycle was 3 months ago
A 19-yr-old patient with menorrhagia who has been using superabsorbent tampons and has fever with weakness
A 22-yr-old patient with persistent red-brown vaginal drainage 3 days after having balloon thermotherapy
A 35-yr-old patient with heavy spotting after having a progestin-containing IUD (Mirena) inserted a month ago
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: The 42-yr-old patient with secondary amenorrhea may have menopause, pregnancy, or a hormonal disorder. This is less urgent compared to the 19- year old patient.
Choice B rationale: This patient may have toxic shock syndrome, which is a life- threatening complication of tampon use that can cause organ failure and shock. The nurse should assess the patient's vital signs, remove the tampon, and initiate fluid resuscitation and antibiotic therapy.
Choice C rationale: This patient may have an infection or a complication of the balloon thermotherapy, which is a procedure to destroy the endometrial lining of the uterus and is not an emergency compared to the 19 year old.
Choice D rationale: This patient may have a displacement or perforation of the IUD, which is a contraceptive device that releases progestin into the uterus. However, this is not urgent compared to the 19 year old.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Not a typical characteristic of Crohn's disease; more associated with conditions like rectal fistulas.
Choice B rationale: Crohn's disease commonly involves diarrhea rather than chronic constipation.
Choice C rationale: A common symptom of Crohn's disease due to inflammation and malabsorption in the intestines.
Choice D rationale: Crohn's disease typically presents with diarrhea but not necessarily alternating with constipation. Constipation alternating with diarrhea may also occur in irritable bowel syndrome.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Hormone therapy (HT) is used to treat menopausal symptoms, not PID.
Choice B rationale: Irregularities in the menstrual cycle is not a common complications of PID.
Choice C rationale: Changes in secondary sex characteristics is not a common complications of PID.
Choice D rationale: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection of the female reproductive organs that can cause scarring and damage to the fallopian tubes, ovaries, and uterus. This can lead to ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain, and infertility.
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