The nurse is administering Furosemide 40 mg PO to a client with peripheral edema. Which method should the nurse use to best evaluate the client's response to this medication?

Monitor serum sodium levels

Auscultate breath sounds

Perform daily weights

Take the blood pressure

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Monitor serum sodium levels: While serum sodium levels can provide some information about fluid balance, they are not the most direct indicator of the effectiveness of furosemide
in reducing peripheral edema.

B. Auscultate breath sounds: This is important for monitoring potential fluid overload or pulmonary complications, but it does not directly assess the reduction of peripheral edema, which is the primary concern with furosemide administration.

C. Perform daily weights: This method is the best way to evaluate the client's response to furosemide. Daily weights can provide a clear indication of fluid status and changes in peripheral edema, as a decrease in weight typically reflects effective diuresis.
D. Take the blood pressure: While monitoring blood pressure is important, especially in clients receiving diuretics, it does not specifically measure the effectiveness of the medication in addressing peripheral edema.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. The layers of your heart are weak and thin: This statement does not accurately address the underlying cause of chest pain in coronary artery disease. Weakness in heart layers is not a common explanation for angina.
B. The pain you have is because your heart valves are damaged: While valve damage can lead to cardiac symptoms, it is not the primary cause of chest pain associated with coronary artery disease, which is more directly related to blood flow issues.

C. Your heart muscle is weak and is not pumping forcefully: This statement could be true in the context of heart failure but does not specifically explain the chest pain associated with coronary artery disease.

D. The pain is caused by decreased oxygen to the heart muscle: This is the most accurate and appropriate response. Chest pain in coronary artery disease, often referred to as angina, typically occurs due to reduced blood flow and, consequently, oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. This explanation helps the client understand the physiological basis of their symptoms.

A. Furosemide 40 mg PO daily for a client whose blood pressure is 123986. B. Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg SL PRN for a client complaining of chest C. Metoprolol 25 mg PO bid for a client whose heart rate is 55 beats D. Diltiazem 30 mg PO tid for a client whose heart rate is 90 beats/min

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Furosemide 40 mg PO daily for a client whose blood pressure is 123/86: While furosemide is important for managing fluid status, the client's blood pressure is within a normal range, and this medication does not address any acute concerns.

B) Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg SL PRN for a client complaining of chest pain: This prescription should be implemented first because it addresses an immediate and potentially life-threatening symptom. Chest pain can indicate angina or myocardial infarction, making it critical to relieve this symptom promptly.

C) Metoprolol 25 mg PO bid for a client whose heart rate is 55 beats: While metoprolol is important for managing heart rate and hypertension, a heart rate of 55 beats/minute is on the lower end and could warrant caution. The priority would be to assess the need for medication before administering it.

D) Diltiazem 30 mg PO tid for a client whose heart rate is 90 beats/min: This medication is also important for managing heart rate and hypertension but is not the priority over addressing acute chest pain. The client’s heart rate is within a normal range, so this does not require immediate action compared to the nitroglycerin for chest pain.

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The nurse is administering Furosemide 40 mg PO to a client with peripheral edema. Which method should the nurse use to best evaluate the client's response to this medication?

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