The nurse is administering the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan. Which physiological response causes its therapeutic effect?
Chronotropic effect.
Diuresis
Vasodilation.
Sympatholytic action.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Chronotropic effect: This term refers to changes in heart rate. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists like valsartan primarily affect blood pressure and vascular tone, rather than directly altering heart rate.
B) Diuresis: Diuresis involves increased urine production. Although some antihypertensives can have a diuretic effect, valsartan primarily works through mechanisms other than increasing urine output.
C) Vasodilation: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as valsartan work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which leads to vasodilation. This reduction in vascular resistance helps to lower blood pressure and is the primary therapeutic effect of valsartan.
D) Sympatholytic action: This refers to the suppression of sympathetic nervous system activity. Valsartan does not primarily act through sympathetic nervous system modulation but rather through direct vasodilation by blocking angiotensin II receptors.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Chronotropic effect: This term refers to changes in heart rate. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists like valsartan primarily affect blood pressure and vascular tone, rather than directly altering heart rate.
B) Diuresis: Diuresis involves increased urine production. Although some antihypertensives can have a diuretic effect, valsartan primarily works through mechanisms other than increasing urine output.
C) Vasodilation: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as valsartan work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which leads to vasodilation. This reduction in vascular resistance helps to lower blood pressure and is the primary therapeutic effect of valsartan.
D) Sympatholytic action: This refers to the suppression of sympathetic nervous system activity. Valsartan does not primarily act through sympathetic nervous system modulation but rather through direct vasodilation by blocking angiotensin II receptors.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Determine if there is a decrease in serum potassium due to renal compromise: Acetaminophen is not commonly associated with significant renal impairment or changes in serum potassium levels, making this a less relevant consideration.
B. Expect to find an increase in today's activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) as compared to last quarter's due to bleeding: Acetaminophen does not significantly affect APTT or bleeding risk, so changes in APTT would not be expected due to acetaminophen use.
C. Look at last quarter's hemoglobin and hematocrit, expecting an increase today due to dehydration: Acetaminophen is not known to cause changes in hemoglobin and hematocrit levels or dehydration-related increases in these values.
D. Look for an increase in today's lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) compared to the previous one to assess for possible liver damage: Acetaminophen overdose or chronic high use can lead to liver damage, which would be indicated by elevated LDH levels. Monitoring LDH is appropriate to assess for potential liver damage related to acetaminophen use.
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