The nurse is administering the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan. Which physiological response causes its therapeutic effect?
Chronotropic effect.
Diuresis
Vasodilation.
Sympatholytic action.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Chronotropic effect: This term refers to changes in heart rate. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists like valsartan primarily affect blood pressure and vascular tone, rather than directly altering heart rate.
B) Diuresis: Diuresis involves increased urine production. Although some antihypertensives can have a diuretic effect, valsartan primarily works through mechanisms other than increasing urine output.
C) Vasodilation: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as valsartan work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which leads to vasodilation. This reduction in vascular resistance helps to lower blood pressure and is the primary therapeutic effect of valsartan.
D) Sympatholytic action: This refers to the suppression of sympathetic nervous system activity. Valsartan does not primarily act through sympathetic nervous system modulation but rather through direct vasodilation by blocking angiotensin II receptors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Fingerstick glucose: While important in managing diabetes or hypoglycemia, it is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy.
B. Stool color and character: Lactulose acts as a laxative, and its effectiveness can affect stool characteristics. However, stool color and character are less direct indicators of therapeutic response compared to serum ammonia levels.
C. Serum hepatic enzymes: While liver enzyme levels can provide information about liver function, they do not directly measure the effectiveness of lactulose in managing hepatic encephalopathy. Serum ammonia levels are more specific for this purpose.
D. Serum electrolytes and ammonia: Lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy by reducing blood ammonia levels. Monitoring serum ammonia levels provides direct feedback on the effectiveness of the medication in treating hepatic encephalopathy. Additionally, serum electrolytes should be monitored because lactulose can lead to electrolyte imbalances due to its laxative effect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Until a smaller angle can be restored: Open-angle glaucoma is characterized by a gradual increase in intraocular pressure due to the obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor, not by a narrow angle. The treatment aims to control eye pressure rather than restore the angle, which is more relevant to acute angle-closure glaucoma.
B. For long-term control of normal eye pressure: Open-angle glaucoma is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management to maintain normal intraocular pressure and prevent damage to the optic nerve. The prescribed eye drops help in managing intraocular pressure over the long term to prevent vision loss.
C. For long-term control of pain and swelling: Open-angle glaucoma typically does not present with pain and swelling. The goal of treatment is to control intraocular pressure rather than address pain or swelling, which are not primary symptoms of this condition.
D. Until the excess pressure is reduced: While initial treatment aims to reduce intraocular pressure, open-angle glaucoma requires ongoing use of medications to maintain normal pressure levels and prevent progression of the disease. Discontinuing the medication after initial pressure reduction can lead to a return of elevated intraocular pressure.
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