The nurse is administering the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan. Which physiological response causes its therapeutic effect?
Chronotropic effect.
Diuresis
Vasodilation.
Sympatholytic action.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Chronotropic effect: This term refers to changes in heart rate. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists like valsartan primarily affect blood pressure and vascular tone, rather than directly altering heart rate.
B) Diuresis: Diuresis involves increased urine production. Although some antihypertensives can have a diuretic effect, valsartan primarily works through mechanisms other than increasing urine output.
C) Vasodilation: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as valsartan work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which leads to vasodilation. This reduction in vascular resistance helps to lower blood pressure and is the primary therapeutic effect of valsartan.
D) Sympatholytic action: This refers to the suppression of sympathetic nervous system activity. Valsartan does not primarily act through sympathetic nervous system modulation but rather through direct vasodilation by blocking angiotensin II receptors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication: This timing is correct for monitoring vancomycin levels. The peak level is typically measured immediately after the completion of the infusion (though peak levels are less commonly required for vancomycin), and the trough level is measured just before the next dose is due, 30 minutes before administration. This approach helps in evaluating the medication's efficacy and safety.
B. One hour after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next administration of the medication: This timing is not ideal. The peak level for vancomycin is usually measured immediately after the dose rather than one hour later. Trough levels are measured closer to the next dose, typically 30 minutes before the next dose.
C. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and two hours before the next administration of the medication: Measuring levels two hours after the dose completion is too late for a peak level. The trough level should be measured closer to the next dose, generally 30 minutes before the next administration.
D. Thirty minutes into the administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication: Measuring the level 30 minutes into the infusion is not appropriate for peak levels, which are typically measured.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Administer sucralfate once a day, preferably at bedtime: Sucralfate is typically administered multiple times a day, not just once. It is commonly given in divided doses, often four times a day, to ensure adequate coverage and effectiveness. Administering it at bedtime alone would not provide consistent therapeutic effects.
B. Monitor for electrolyte imbalance: Sucralfate is not known to cause significant electrolyte imbalances. It works locally in the gastrointestinal tract and does not usually affect electrolyte levels, so monitoring for electrolyte imbalances is not a primary concern with this medication.
C. Assess for secondary Candida infection: While sucralfate may affect the gastrointestinal flora, secondary Candida infections are not a common side effect. Sucralfate is not an antibiotic and does not typically lead to fungal infections.
D. Give sucralfate on an empty stomach: Sucralfate should be administered on an empty stomach, ideally 1 hour before meals or 2 hours after meals. This allows the medication to properly adhere to the ulcer site and form a protective barrier, enhancing its effectiveness in treating peptic ulcers.
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