The nurse is administering the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan. Which physiological response causes its therapeutic effect?
Chronotropic effect.
Diuresis
Vasodilation.
Sympatholytic action.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Chronotropic effect: This term refers to changes in heart rate. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists like valsartan primarily affect blood pressure and vascular tone, rather than directly altering heart rate.
B) Diuresis: Diuresis involves increased urine production. Although some antihypertensives can have a diuretic effect, valsartan primarily works through mechanisms other than increasing urine output.
C) Vasodilation: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as valsartan work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which leads to vasodilation. This reduction in vascular resistance helps to lower blood pressure and is the primary therapeutic effect of valsartan.
D) Sympatholytic action: This refers to the suppression of sympathetic nervous system activity. Valsartan does not primarily act through sympathetic nervous system modulation but rather through direct vasodilation by blocking angiotensin II receptors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Determine if the client is taking the medication before meals: While the timing of medication relative to meals can affect absorption, this action assumes a specific problem without first clarifying the client's concerns. It's important to understand the nature of the client's issue before assessing medication administration.
B) Ask if his morning voiding is dark colored: Dark-colored urine may be a side effect of some medications, but this is a less direct approach to understanding why the client feels the medication is not working. It does not directly address the effectiveness of the medication.
C) Explore what the client means by the drug not working: This is the most appropriate initial intervention. Understanding the client's perception and specific concerns about the medication's effectiveness will guide further actions, such as assessing medication adherence, side effects, or the need for a medication adjustment.
D) Evaluate the client for signs of dyskinesia: While assessing for dyskinesia is important, it is more of a specific follow-up step. The priority is to understand the client's concerns about the medication's overall effectiveness before focusing on specific side effects.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Fingerstick glucose: While important in managing diabetes or hypoglycemia, it is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy.
B. Stool color and character: Lactulose acts as a laxative, and its effectiveness can affect stool characteristics. However, stool color and character are less direct indicators of therapeutic response compared to serum ammonia levels.
C. Serum hepatic enzymes: While liver enzyme levels can provide information about liver function, they do not directly measure the effectiveness of lactulose in managing hepatic encephalopathy. Serum ammonia levels are more specific for this purpose.
D. Serum electrolytes and ammonia: Lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy by reducing blood ammonia levels. Monitoring serum ammonia levels provides direct feedback on the effectiveness of the medication in treating hepatic encephalopathy. Additionally, serum electrolytes should be monitored because lactulose can lead to electrolyte imbalances due to its laxative effect.
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