The nurse is assessing a client who recently returned from surgery for a femur fracture. The client begins to complain of pain, numbness, and tingling to the affected extremity. Upon assessment, the extremity is cold to the touch with no pedal pulse and no motor function. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)
Apply a constricting bandage/gauze wrap
Advise the client they will need an immediate amputation
Prepare the client to go back to the operating room
Elevate the extremity and apply ice
Notify the surgeon
Correct Answer : C,E
A. Applying a constricting bandage/gauze wrap is contraindicated. This could further compromise circulation and exacerbate ischemia.
B. Advising the client about an immediate amputation is inappropriate and outside the nurse's scope of practice. The focus should be on timely intervention and notifying the surgeon.
C. Preparing the client to go back to the operating room is appropriate because the symptoms indicate potential compartment syndrome or vascular compromise, which often requires surgical intervention to restore circulation.
D. Elevating the extremity and applying ice is contraindicated in this scenario. Elevation can further decrease blood flow to an already ischemic limb, and ice application can cause vasoconstriction, worsening the issue.
E. Notifying the surgeon is essential. The described symptoms are a surgical emergency requiring immediate evaluation and intervention to prevent permanent damage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Skip lesions and a cobblestone appearance are characteristic of Crohn's disease, not ulcerative colitis (UC). UC involves continuous inflammation of the colon, without skip lesions.
B. Ulcerative colitis is associated with a risk for bowel perforation and toxic megacolon, which are serious complications of the disease.
C. Diarrhea containing blood is a common symptom of ulcerative colitis, as it primarily affects the colon and rectum, leading to inflammation and ulceration.
D. Increased risk for colorectal cancer is a known complication of ulcerative colitis, especially with long-term disease duration.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Antihypertensive medication is not a priority intervention for a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL, which indicates hyperglycemia, likely due to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) or hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). The focus should be on correcting the hyperglycemia and preventing complications like dehydration or electrolyte imbalances.
B. Fluid replacement is essential to treat dehydration caused by hyperglycemia, as high blood glucose levels cause osmotic diuresis.
C. Potassium laboratory monitoring is crucial because insulin treatment can shift potassium into cells, potentially causing hypokalemia, so monitoring is necessary during treatment.
D. Insulin IV infusion is necessary to lower the blood glucose level in clients with severe hyperglycemia, such as in DKA or HHS.
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