The nurse is assessing a client with a new diagnosis of multiple sclerosis. Which manifestations would the nurse expect to see that are common early signs of multiple sclerosis?

Bradykinesia, hand tremors, and memory loss

Ascending paralysis beginning in the lower extremities and dysphagia

Areas of numbness, weakness in the legs, visual problems

Choreiform movements and loss of facial expression

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Bradykinesia, hand tremors, and memory loss are more characteristic of Parkinson's disease, not multiple sclerosis.
B. Ascending paralysis beginning in the lower extremities and dysphagia are typical of Guillain-Barré syndrome, not multiple sclerosis. MS does not usually present with paralysis but rather with muscle weakness and sensory disturbances.
C. Early signs of multiple sclerosis often include areas of numbness, weakness in the legs, and visual problems such as optic neuritis. These symptoms result from demyelination and nerve damage in the central nervous system.
D. Choreiform movements and loss of facial expression are associated with Huntington's disease, not multiple sclerosis.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. A subdural hematoma is typically caused by venous bleeding, not arterial bleeding. An arterial rupture would more likely cause an epidural hematoma, which is not the case here.
B. High platelet counts are not commonly associated with the formation of subdural hematomas. Subdural hematomas are usually due to bleeding related to anticoagulant use or trauma.
C. Taking a blood thinner like warfarin increases the risk of bleeding and hematoma formation, particularly when combined with head trauma. This statement correctly links the anticoagulant therapy and head injury as contributing factors to the subdural hematoma.
D. Low bleeding times are not a cause of hematomas. In fact, elevated bleeding times due to anticoagulant therapy would increase the risk of bleeding, not low bleeding times.

A. Apply heated compress to the knee. B. Assess client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). C. Administer low-dose aspirin. D. Prepare for autologous blood transfusion.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Assessing the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is important to monitor the effectiveness of treatment and manage bleeding risk. Hemophilia A is characterized by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, which prolongs the aPTT.
A. Applying heated compresses is not recommended for hemarthrosis; instead, cold compresses should be used to reduce bleeding and swelling.
C. Low-dose aspirin is contraindicated for clients with hemophilia because it can further inhibit platelet function and increase bleeding risk.
D. Autologous blood transfusion is not typically required for hemophilia; factor replacement therapy is the standard treatment.

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The nurse is assessing a client with a new diagnosis of multiple sclerosis. Which manifestations would the nurse expect to see that are common early signs of multiple sclerosis?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has hemophilia A and hemarthrosis of the left knee. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is interviewing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following statements by the client would the nurse identify as a risk factor for pancreatitis?

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