The nurse is assessing a patient who was recently switched to amlodipine. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient is experiencing side effects of the drug? Select All That Apply
Pedal edema
Muscle cramps
Dizziness
Sexual dysfunction
Bradycardia
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D
A. Pedal edema: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema as a side effect due to its vasodilatory effects on arterioles. This can manifest as swelling, particularly in the feet and ankles.
B. Muscle cramps: Muscle cramps are a known side effect of amlodipine. While the mechanism is not fully understood, calcium channel blockers like amlodipine can disrupt calcium ion flux in muscle cells, potentially leading to muscle cramping.
C. Dizziness: Dizziness is a common side effect of amlodipine, particularly during the initial period of treatment or when dosage adjustments are made. It is believed to be related to its vasodilatory effects and subsequent lowering of blood pressure.
D. Sexual dysfunction: Sexual dysfunction, including erectile dysfunction, has been reported as a side effect of amlodipine in some patients. The exact mechanism is not well understood but may be related to alterations in blood flow or neurohormonal effects.
E. Bradycardia: Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not a typical side effect of amlodipine. Amlodipine primarily acts as a vasodilator and does not typically affect heart rate. In fact, it may cause reflex tachycardia (increased heart rate) in some individuals as a compensatory response to its vasodilatory effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Human Immunodeficiency virus encephalopathy:
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) encephalopathy, also known as HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND), is a common neurological complication of HIV/AIDS. It occurs due to the direct effects of HIV on the central nervous system (CNS), leading to cognitive impairment, behavioral changes, and motor dysfunction. The progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions described in the patient is characteristic of HIV encephalopathy. Therefore, this choice is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms.
B. Beta-cell lymphoma:
Beta-cell lymphoma, also known as primary central nervous system lymphoma (PCNSL), is a rare but serious complication of HIV/AIDS. It involves the development of malignant lymphomas within the CNS. While PCNSL can cause neurological symptoms, such as cognitive decline and motor dysfunction, it typically presents with focal neurological deficits and signs of increased intracranial pressure, which are not mentioned in the scenario. Therefore, beta-cell lymphoma is less likely to be the cause of the patient's symptoms compared to HIV encephalopathy.
C. Kaposi sarcoma:
Kaposi sarcoma is a type of cancer caused by human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) infection, which commonly affects individuals with HIV/AIDS. While Kaposi sarcoma can involve the CNS and potentially lead to neurological symptoms, such as headaches and focal neurological deficits, the progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions described in the scenario is not typically associated with Kaposi sarcoma. Therefore, this choice is less likely to explain the patient's symptoms compared to HIV encephalopathy.
D. Wasting syndrome:
Wasting syndrome, also known as cachexia, is a syndrome characterized by unintentional weight loss, weakness, and muscle atrophy. While wasting syndrome is a common complication of advanced HIV/AIDS, it primarily affects body composition and nutritional status rather than causing progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions. Therefore, wasting syndrome is less likely to be the cause of the patient's symptoms compared to HIV encephalopathy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The partial thromboplastin time is 30 seconds:
The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) measures the clotting time of blood and is typically used to monitor patients on heparin therapy, not warfarin. A PTT of 30 seconds is within the normal range and does not directly relate to warfarin therapy. Therefore, it does not require immediate follow-up in the context of warfarin administration.
B. The International normalized ratio is 6.0:
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a standard measure used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. For most indications, the therapeutic range for INR is typically between 2.0 and 3.0. A value of 6.0 indicates that the patient's blood is taking six times longer to clot than normal, suggesting a significantly increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, this result requires immediate follow-up by the nurse to assess the patient's condition and potentially adjust warfarin dosage to reduce the risk of bleeding.
C. Creatinine is 12:
Creatinine is a waste product generated by muscle metabolism and is filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. Elevated levels of creatinine may indicate impaired kidney function, but this result does not directly relate to warfarin therapy. While an elevated creatinine level may require follow-up for other reasons, it does not necessitate immediate action related to warfarin therapy.
D. The patient's hematocrit level is 43%:
Hematocrit is a measure of the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. A hematocrit level of 43% is within the normal range for both men and women and does not directly relate to warfarin therapy. While changes in hematocrit may occur in some patients taking warfarin, this result alone does not require immediate follow-up in the context of warfarin administration.
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