The nurse is assessing a client experiencing motor loss as the result of a left-sided stroke. Which of the following clinical manifestations related to motor loss would the nurse document?
Impulsive behavior and hostility toward family
Hemiparesis of the client's left arm and apraxia
Homonymous hemianopia on the left side and diplopia
Paralysis of the right side of the body and ataxia
The Correct Answer is D
A. These are behavioral changes that may occur after a stroke, but they are not directly related to motor loss.
B. Hemiparesis is weakness on one side of the body, but in this case, the client is experiencing motor loss on the right side. Apraxia is the inability to perform purposeful movements, which can also occur after a stroke, but it is not a direct manifestation of motor loss.
C. Homonymous hemianopia is the loss of vision in half of the visual field on the same side as the stroke. Diplopia is double vision. While these are both common symptoms of stroke, they are not related to motor loss.
D. A left-sided stroke typically results in motor loss on the right side of the body. This is because the left side of the brain controls the right side of the body. Additionally, ataxia, which is a lack of coordination, is a common symptom of stroke.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. CA-125 is primarily associated with ovarian cancer and is not a relevant tumor marker for testicular cancer. Serum ceruloplasmin is a copper-carrying protein that can be elevated in various conditions, but it is not specific for testicular cancer. Therefore, this option is not appropriate.
B. Both hCG and AFP are tumor markers specifically associated with testicular cancer. Elevated levels of these markers can indicate the presence of non-seminomatous testicular tumors. Monitoring these markers is essential for diagnosis, assessing treatment response, and detecting recurrence.
C. EPO is involved in red blood cell production and is not a tumor marker for testicular cancer. CEA is primarily associated with colorectal cancer and some other malignancies, but it is not specific for testicular cancer.
D. PSA is a tumor marker associated with prostate cancer, not testicular cancer. While hCG is relevant for testicular cancer, the inclusion of PSA makes this option inappropriate for a client with testicular cancer.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ascites is a condition where excess fluid accumulates in the abdominal cavity. It is a common finding in advanced-stage ovarian cancer as the cancer can spread to the abdominal organs and lymph nodes, leading to fluid buildup.
B. Chest pressure is not a typical symptom of advanced-stage ovarian cancer. It might be associated with other conditions, such as heart disease or lung problems.
C. Painful urination is not a common symptom of advanced-stage ovarian cancer. It might be associated with other conditions, such as urinary tract infections or bladder problems.
D. Excessive flatus is not a typical symptom of advanced-stage ovarian cancer. It might be associated with other gastrointestinal conditions.
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