The nurse is caring for a 13-year-old diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. The client asks the nurse what they can do to help prevent sickle cell crisis. What would be an appropriate answer to this client?

Stay on oxygen therapy 24/7

Avoid any type of sports

Avoid any activity that makes you short of breath

Drink at least 8 glasses of water every day

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Continuous oxygen therapy is not a standard preventive measure for sickle cell crises. Oxygen is used during acute crises to treat hypoxia from vaso-occlusion, but daily hydration is more effective for prevention, as it reduces blood viscosity and sickling, making this inappropriate.

Choice B reason: Avoiding all sports is overly restrictive for sickle cell anemia. Moderate exercise can be safe with proper hydration and rest. Complete avoidance does not directly prevent crises and may reduce quality of life, whereas hydration directly addresses the risk of sickling and vaso-occlusion.

Choice C reason: Avoiding activities causing shortness of breath is partially correct, as overexertion can trigger hypoxia and crises. However, it is less specific than hydration, which directly reduces blood viscosity and sickling, preventing crises more effectively across various situations, not just during exertion.

Choice D reason: Drinking at least 8 glasses of water daily is critical in sickle cell anemia to prevent crises. Adequate hydration reduces blood viscosity, preventing red blood cell sickling and vaso-occlusion. Dehydration increases sickling risk, making consistent fluid intake a key preventive strategy for this client.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Aspiration precautions are important in head injury to prevent pneumonia, particularly if consciousness is impaired, but they are not specific seizure prophylactic measures. Seizures require anticonvulsants to prevent neuronal hyperexcitability, making aspiration precautions a secondary concern unrelated to seizure prevention.

Choice B reason: Anticonvulsant medications, initiated early (e.g., day two), are standard for seizure prophylaxis in head injury. Trauma can cause cortical irritation, increasing seizure risk. Drugs like levetiracetam stabilize neuronal activity, preventing seizures, which could worsen brain injury or ICP, making this the primary measure.

Choice C reason: Intubation and ventilator support are used for severe head injuries with compromised airway or breathing but are not seizure prophylaxis. Seizures are managed with anticonvulsants, as mechanical ventilation does not address neuronal excitability, making this inappropriate for seizure prevention.

Choice D reason: Antiemetic medications manage nausea but are not seizure prophylactic measures. While vomiting may occur post-head injury, it does not prevent seizures, which result from cortical irritability. Anticonvulsants directly target seizure risk, making antiemetics irrelevant to this specific intervention goal.

A. Elimination of iron by the body B. Excessive consumption of coffee or tea C. Blood loss from the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract D. Decrease in the total body iron stores with age

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Elimination of iron by the body is not a typical cause of anemia in older adults. Iron is tightly regulated, and excessive loss occurs through bleeding, not spontaneous elimination. Anemia in the elderly is more commonly due to chronic blood loss or impaired absorption, not iron excretion.

Choice B reason: Excessive coffee or tea consumption can inhibit iron absorption due to tannins binding dietary iron, but it is not a primary cause of anemia in older adults. Blood loss or chronic disease are more common culprits, making dietary inhibition a less likely contributor in this population.

Choice C reason: Blood loss from the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract is a common cause of anemia in older adults. Chronic bleeding from ulcers, colon cancer, or urinary tract issues depletes iron stores, leading to iron deficiency anemia, a frequent finding in the elderly due to higher prevalence of these conditions.

Choice D reason: A decrease in total body iron stores with age is not a primary cause of anemia. While absorption may decline slightly, blood loss from gastrointestinal or genitourinary sources is a more significant contributor in older adults, as it directly reduces iron available for hemoglobin synthesis.

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The nurse is caring for a 13-year-old diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. The client asks the nurse what they can do to help prevent sickle cell crisis. What would be an appropriate answer to this client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client sustained a head injury as a result of trauma. The health care provider has instituted seizure prophylactic measures. The nurse anticipates which specific measures being initiated for this client?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is caring for an older adult client who has been admitted to the unit with anemia. What would the nurse expect the client to possibly exhibit?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is being cared for on the critical care unit. The client with this condition is most at risk for which of the following?

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The nurse assesses a client who has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which of the following is a diagnostic sign of this disease?

The nurse is collecting data for a client who has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. What subjective findings does the nurse recognize as symptoms related to this type of anemia?

The nurse is reviewing plans of care for several clients. The nurse recognizes which client is most at risk for developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?