A client who is 36 weeks with a breech presentation and diagnosed with a placenta previa asks the nurse if she can have an external version and deliver vaginally. The best answer by the nurse would be which of the following?

A. A G3 P2 laboring patient with a current vaginal exam of 8/100%/0: This patient is in advanced labor (transition phase) and IV pain medication is typically avoided due to the proximity to delivery, which could affect the newborn.

B. A G1 P0 laboring patient with a Category 1 strip and a current vaginal exam of 4/80%/-1: This patient is in active labor with normal fetal heart tracing, making her a suitable candidate for IV pain medication.

C. A G1 P0 laboring patient with the FHT showing no variability and late decelerations: This patient has non-reassuring fetal heart tracings, indicating potential fetal distress, making IV pain medication inappropriate as it could further compromise the fetus.

D. A G1 P0 laboring patient who has a vaginal exam of 5/100%/0 and contractions every 4 minutes: This patient is also in active labor with normal fetal heart tracings, making her a suitable candidate for IV pain medication.

A. While positioning the patient in a knee-chest position may help, the immediate priority is to relieve pressure on the cord.

B. Administering oxygen is important but does not address the primary issue of cord compression.

C. The number one priority in managing a prolapsed cord is to relieve pressure on the cord and prevent fetal hypoxia. The nurse should manually elevate the presenting part of the fetus to reduce cord compression.

D. Obtaining consent for a C-section is important but not the immediate priority in managing a prolapsed cord.