The nurse is caring for a 45-year-old male who arrives at the emergency department actively seizing for the past 10 minutes. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority action?

Talk to spouse to gather the client’s seizure history.

Check the client’s glucose level.

Apply soft wrist restraints to prevent injury.

Establish IV access and prepare to administer lorazepam.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Gathering seizure history from the spouse provides valuable information for long-term management, such as identifying triggers or medication history. However, during an active seizure lasting 10 minutes, the priority is to stop the seizure to prevent status epilepticus, which can cause brain damage due to prolonged neuronal hyperactivity and hypoxia, making history collection secondary.

Choice B reason: Checking glucose levels is relevant in cases where hypoglycemia may trigger seizures, as low blood sugar can disrupt neuronal function. However, during an active, prolonged seizure, the immediate priority is terminating the seizure to prevent cerebral hypoxia and neuronal injury. Glucose checks can follow after the seizure is controlled to identify underlying causes.

Choice C reason: Applying soft wrist restraints may reduce injury risk by limiting movement during a seizure. However, this does not address the underlying neuronal hyperactivity causing the seizure. Prolonged seizures (over 5 minutes) risk brain damage or systemic complications, so administering anticonvulsants to stop the seizure takes precedence over restraint application.

Choice D reason: Establishing IV access and administering lorazepam is the priority for a patient seizing for 10 minutes. Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, enhances GABA-mediated inhibition in the brain, rapidly terminating seizure activity. This prevents status epilepticus, a life-threatening condition causing neuronal damage, hypoxia, or death if untreated, making it the most critical intervention in this scenario.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Propranolol, a beta-blocker, reduces physical anxiety symptoms (e.g., tachycardia) by blocking adrenaline’s effects on beta receptors. It is not first-line for generalized anxiety disorder, as it addresses somatic symptoms rather than the underlying neurochemical imbalance, such as serotonin dysregulation, targeted by more effective long-term treatments.

Choice B reason: Hydroxyzine, an antihistamine, has sedative properties and is used for acute anxiety by modulating histamine and serotonin receptors. It is not first-line for generalized anxiety disorder, as it lacks long-term efficacy and primarily addresses short-term symptoms, unlike treatments targeting chronic serotonin imbalances.

Choice C reason: Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is the first-choice medication for generalized anxiety disorder. It increases serotonin levels in the brain, stabilizing mood and reducing excessive worry by enhancing neurotransmission in the prefrontal cortex and amygdala, offering long-term efficacy with fewer dependency risks compared to benzodiazepines.

Choice D reason: Alprazolam, a benzodiazepine, enhances GABA activity for rapid anxiety relief but is not first-line due to high dependence risk and short-term effects. Generalized anxiety disorder requires long-term management, and SSRIs like fluoxetine are preferred for their efficacy in addressing chronic serotonin dysregulation without addiction potential.

A. Carpal tunnel syndrome can only be treated with surgery and medications B. Symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome include numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers C. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the median nerve D. Wearing a wrist splint at night can help alleviate symptoms

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Stating that carpal tunnel syndrome is only treated with surgery and medications is incorrect, as conservative treatments like splints and therapy are effective. This indicates a knowledge gap, making it the correct choice.

Choice B reason: Numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers are accurate symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome. This statement is correct, so it doesn’t require further teaching.

Choice C reason: Median nerve compression causes carpal tunnel syndrome, a correct statement. This reflects accurate knowledge, making it incorrect for indicating a need for further teaching.

Choice D reason: Wearing a wrist splint at night alleviates carpal tunnel symptoms, a correct intervention. This shows understanding, making it incorrect for needing further teaching.

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The nurse is caring for a 45-year-old male who arrives at the emergency department actively seizing for the past 10 minutes. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority action?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is providing care to a client in the clinic who is newly diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder. Which of the following is the first-choice medication for a client with anxiety?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Which statement made by the new nurse regarding carpal tunnel syndrome indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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