The nurse is caring for a client being treated for fluid volume excess. Which assessment finding indicates that treatment has been effective?
Respiratory rate 24/min
Blood pressure 138/86 mm Hg
Total urinary output 700 mL in 24 hours
Weight loss of 4 lb in 24 hours
The Correct Answer is D
A. Respiratory rate 24/min: A respiratory rate of 24/min indicates tachypnea, which can be a sign of ongoing fluid volume excess or other complications. This does not show effective treatment.
B. Blood pressure 138/86 mm Hg: While this blood pressure is within the higher range of normal, it does not specifically indicate effective treatment of fluid volume excess. Blood pressure alone is not a reliable indicator of fluid status.
C. Total urinary output 700 mL in 24 hours: A urinary output of 700 mL in 24 hours is below the normal range (typically 800-2000 mL per day) and suggests that the fluid volume excess has not been effectively treated. Adequate urinary output is a key indicator of effective fluid management.
D. Weight loss of 4 lb in 24 hours: A weight loss of 4 lb in 24 hours is a clear indicator that the client has lost excess fluid, which is the desired outcome in treating fluid volume excess. This demonstrates that the treatment has been effective in reducing fluid retention
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Furosemide (Lasix): This is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and does not address the symptoms related to calcium imbalances.
B. Diazepam (Valium): This is an anxiolytic and does not address the symptoms associated with hypocalcemia following a thyroidectomy.
C. Calcium gluconate: This is the appropriate medication for treating hypocalcemia, which can occur after a thyroidectomy due to potential damage to or removal of parathyroid glands, leading to symptoms such as abdominal cramping and irregular heart rate.
D. Calcitonin: While this hormone helps regulate calcium levels, it is more commonly used to treat hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Poorly controlled pain, moves all extremities, reports continued nausea: Poorly controlled pain and nausea are not ideal for discharge, as they indicate the patient might need further monitoring and management.
B. 2-hour total urinary output of 30 mL, pulse oximetry 94% on 3L oxygen, turning from side to side: Low urinary output and low oxygen saturation indicate potential complications that require further assessment and treatment.
C. Afebrile, adventitious breath sounds, responds to painful stimuli: Responding to painful stimuli and adventitious breath sounds suggest the patient may still be experiencing complications and is not ready for discharge.
D. SaO2 of 95%, vital signs stable for last 30 minutes, active gag reflex: This response indicates stable oxygen saturation, stable vital signs, and an active gag reflex, suggesting the patient is ready for discharge from the PACU.
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