- The nurse is caring for a client who is concerned about sexual performance.
Nursing Interview
A 70-year-old male client reported that he is concerned about declining sexual performance.
The nurse is engaging in client education to explain internal causes of withdrawal from sexual activity later in life. Which of the following internal causes should the nurse discuss? Select all that apply.
(Select All that Apply.)
Stress
Low testosterone levels
Substance use
Lack of sleep
Correct Answer : B
A. Stress can affect sexual performance, but it's not exclusively an internal factor. Stress can be caused by both internal and external factors.
B. Low testosterone levels are an internal factor that can significantly impact sexual performance in aging males. Testosterone decline is a natural part of aging and can affect libido and sexual function.
C. Substance use can affect sexual performance, but it's not solely an internal cause as it often involves external factors related to the intake of substances.
D. Lack of sleep affects overall health, but it can also be influenced by external factors and is not strictly an internal cause.
E. Chronic diseases such as diabetes, cardiovascular diseases, and others can have internal physiological effects that impact blood flow, nerve function, and overall health, contributing to declines in sexual performance later in life.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. HPV vaccination is recommended for both sexually active and non-sexually active individuals for preventive purposes. This statement restricts the vaccine unnecessarily.
B. This statement is correct. The HPV vaccine works best if administered before exposure to the virus, so it is not effective in treating existing HPV infections or genital warts.
C. While true that the HPV vaccine is typically recommended for individuals within a certain age range, this statement doesn't address the client's specific query about getting rid of existing genital warts.
D. Involving the physician in vaccine candidacy is a good step but doesn't directly address the client's query about HPV infection and genital warts.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While prostate cancer risk increases with age, it's not rare for a 60-year-old man to have prostate cancer. This response might provide false reassurance.
B. Chemotherapy is not typically the primary treatment for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and doesn’t relate to the concerns raised by the client.
C. BPH is a chronic condition characterized by non-cancerous prostate enlargement, not temporary swelling that goes away.
D. BPH is commonly caused by hormonal changes and does not predispose a person to prostate cancer. It's important to differentiate between BPH and prostate cancer.
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