The nurse is caring for a client who is withdrawing from long-term use of opioids. The nurse will monitor using a Clinical Opioid Withdrawal Scale (COWS). Which of the following cluster of symptoms would indicate to the nurse the client was withdrawing from opioids?
Diaphoresis, piloerection, tremors, irritability, insomnia, nausea, and vomiting.
Diaphoresis, hypertension, hand tremors, hallucination/illusions, and potential seizures.
Cravings, depression, fatigue, hypersomnolence, and impaired judgment.
Heightened sense of self, hallucinations, flashbacks, incoordination, and panic attacks.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Correct. These symptoms are indicative of opioid withdrawal. Opioid withdrawal symptoms include sweating (diaphoresis), goosebumps (piloerection), tremors, irritability, insomnia, and gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea and vomiting.
B) Incorrect. These symptoms are more indicative of withdrawal from substances like alcohol or benzodiazepines, rather than opioids.
C) Incorrect. These symptoms are not specific to opioid withdrawal and may be seen in various conditions.
D) Incorrect. This cluster of symptoms is not characteristic of opioid withdrawal.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "It sounds as though the antidepressants are working well. Just ask the client if the client is experiencing any side effects and let me know." This response does not adequately address the change in mood and the potential for hypomania. It assumes the change is solely due to the antidepressants.
B. "I'm concerned. Sometimes depressed people seem contented when they have decided to commit suicide. Let's schedule an appointment for tomorrow." While it's important to assess for suicidality, the description provided does not indicate immediate suicidal intent. The client's behavior is more indicative of hypomania.
C. "Since the client is eating, sleeping, and not behaving inappropriately, there's nothing to worry about. Just let me know if the client starts getting irritable or has trouble sleeping." This response downplays the significance of the mood change and does not address the potential for hypomania.
D. "The client sounds hypomanic. Let's schedule an appointment for this week for an evaluation. The client may need additional or different medication." This response correctly identifies the potential for hypomania and takes appropriate action by scheduling an evaluation. Adjusting the client's medication may be necessary to address the change in mood.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms (e.g., apathy, poverty of thought) as second-generation antipsychotics.
B. Olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic known to be effective in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
C. Diphenhydramine is not typically used as a primary treatment for schizophrenia.
D. Chlorpromazine is a first-generation antipsychotic and may not be as effective in addressing the negative symptoms as second-generation antipsychotics.
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