The nurse is caring for a client with a cerebral aneurysm. Why does the nurse limit the interaction of visitors or family members with the client who has an aneurysm?

The stimulation can increase intracranial pressure (ICP)

The interaction may cause the client to become violent

The client may become emotional and lose interest in the treatment

The interaction may cause migraine in the client

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Limiting visitor interaction reduces stimulation, which can increase intracranial pressure (ICP) in clients with cerebral aneurysms. Emotional or physical stress from interactions raises blood pressure, potentially increasing ICP and risking aneurysm rupture, making this a critical measure to maintain stability and prevent catastrophic bleeding.

Choice B reason: Interaction causing violence is not a typical concern in cerebral aneurysm management. Aneurysms may cause neurological symptoms, but violence is unrelated to visitor interactions. The primary risk is increased ICP from stimulation, not behavioral changes, making this an incorrect rationale for limiting visitors.

Choice C reason: Emotional distress from interactions may occur but is not the primary reason to limit visitors. The main concern in cerebral aneurysms is preventing ICP increases from stimulation, which could lead to rupture. Emotional impact on treatment adherence is secondary to this immediate physical risk.

Choice D reason: Migraines are not a direct consequence of visitor interactions in cerebral aneurysm cases. While headaches may occur, the primary concern is increased ICP from stimulation, which raises blood pressure and risks aneurysm rupture, not triggering migraines, which are unrelated to this context.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Radioimmunoassay measures hormone levels, such as ADH, but is not the initial test for a suspected pituitary tumor. It may confirm hormonal deficiencies but cannot visualize structural abnormalities like tumors, which are better assessed by imaging techniques like MRI, making it a secondary diagnostic tool in this context.

Choice B reason: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the initial test for a suspected pituitary tumor. It provides detailed images of the pituitary gland, identifying structural abnormalities like tumors that may cause diabetes insipidus by disrupting ADH production. MRI is non-invasive and highly sensitive for detecting pituitary lesions, guiding further management.

Choice C reason: Radioactive iodine uptake tests assess thyroid function, not pituitary tumors. These tests are used for thyroid disorders like hyperthyroidism, which are unrelated to diabetes insipidus or pituitary pathology. They do not visualize the pituitary gland or confirm structural causes of ADH deficiency.

Choice D reason: A nuclear scan, such as a bone or thyroid scan, is not used to diagnose pituitary tumors. It assesses other conditions, like bone metastases or thyroid activity, but lacks specificity for pituitary imaging. MRI is the preferred modality for visualizing pituitary abnormalities causing diabetes insipidus.

A. Bleeding B. Chronic alcohol use C. Menorrhagia D. Iron malabsorption

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Bleeding, particularly gastrointestinal, is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in males and postmenopausal females. Blood loss reduces iron stores, as hemoglobin contains iron, and chronic bleeding (e.g., from ulcers or colon cancer) depletes iron faster than dietary intake can replenish, leading to anemia.

Choice B reason: Chronic alcohol use may contribute to anemia through nutritional deficiencies or liver disease, but it is not the primary cause. Alcohol can impair folate metabolism or cause gastrointestinal bleeding, but direct blood loss is a more common and significant driver of iron deficiency in these populations.

Choice C reason: Menorrhagia, or heavy menstrual bleeding, is a common cause of iron deficiency anemia in premenopausal women, not males or postmenopausal females. After menopause, menstruation ceases, eliminating this as a cause, making bleeding from other sources, like the gastrointestinal tract, more relevant.

Choice D reason: Iron malabsorption, as in celiac disease or gastric surgery, can cause iron deficiency but is less common than bleeding. Malabsorption impairs dietary iron uptake, but chronic blood loss, especially from gastrointestinal sources, is the leading cause in males and postmenopausal females due to higher prevalence.

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The nurse is caring for a client with a cerebral aneurysm. Why does the nurse limit the interaction of visitors or family members with the client who has an aneurysm?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is suspected to have a pituitary tumor due to signs of diabetes insipidus. What initial test does the nurse help to prepare the client for?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in male clients and postmenopausal female clients is:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A nurse is assisting a client who had a recent stroke with getting dressed for physical therapy. The client looks at each piece of clothing before putting it on the body. The client states, “This is how I know what item I am holding.” What impairment is this client likely experiencing?

Which is a clinical manifestation of diabetes insipidus?

The nurse is caring for an older adult client who has been admitted to the unit with anemia. What would the nurse expect the client to possibly exhibit?

A client with sickle cell anemia has a:

The nurse is caring for a 13-year-old diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. The client asks the nurse what they can do to help prevent sickle cell crisis. What would be an appropriate answer to this client?

What interventions can the nurse encourage the client with diabetes insipidus to implement to control thirst and compensate for urine loss?