The nurse is caring for a client with schizoaffective disorder and type 2 diabetes mellitus who receives a prescription for a second generation antipsychotic. The client expresses concern to the nurse about the effect of this antipsychotic on blood glucose levels. Which response should the nurse make?
"This medication may cause watery eyes and diarrhea. These will go away within 2 weeks."
"Side effects are not likely with this type of medication. There should be no need to worry."
"I can provide an education sheet with your discharge papers. What is your primary language?"
"This type of medication is generally well tolerated. Tell me more about your concerns."
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: The nurse's response regarding watery eyes and diarrhea is not directly related to the client's concern about the medication's effect on blood glucose levels.
Choice B rationale: This response minimizes the potential side effects, which is not accurate. Second-generation antipsychotics are associated with metabolic side effects, including changes in blood glucose levels.
Choice C rationale: Offering an education sheet is helpful but does not directly address the client's specific concerns about the medication's impact on blood glucose levels.
Choice D rationale: This response acknowledges the client's concern, provides information about the general tolerability of the medication, and invites the client to share more about their specific worries. It encourages open communication and allows the nurse to address the client's concerns more effectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Individual addiction counseling may be beneficial for the client but does not address the immediate physiological issue of Wernicke encephalopathy. Thiamine replacement is the priority.
Choice B rationale: Initiating disulfiram teaching is not relevant to the management of Wernicke encephalopathy. Disulfiram is used for alcohol aversion therapy, not thiamine deficiency.
Choice C rationale: Thiamine administration is the most critical intervention for Wernicke encephalopathy caused by alcohol addiction. Thiamine deficiency is a key factor in the development of this condition.
Choice D rationale: Nutrition referral may be important for the client's overall well being, but it is not the priority when the client is experiencing Wernicke encephalopathy. Immediate thiamine replacement is essential.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Gastric lavage may be considered, but the priority is to address respiratory depression. Naloxone administration is more immediate.
Choice B rationale: Renal dialysis is not indicated for the overdose of methadone and benzodiazepines. Addressing respiratory depression is the priority.
Choice C rationale: Nebulizing with albuterol is not the appropriate intervention for respiratory depression due to drug overdose. Naloxone administration is more critical. Choice D rationale: Administration of naloxone is the priority for this client with respiratory depression due to the potential opioid overdose (methadone). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression.
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