The nurse is caring for a client with increased ocular pressure due to open-angle glaucoma. Which diuretic below is used specifically for open-angle glaucoma?

hydrochlorothiazide

furosemide

acetazolamide

spironolactone

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can be used for hypertension and edema but is not specifically indicated for open-angle glaucoma.
B. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used primarily for fluid overload conditions and does not have a specific role in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma.
C. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces aqueous humor production and is specifically used to lower intraocular pressure in clients with open-angle glaucoma.
D. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used mainly for conditions like heart failure and hypertension, and it is not indicated for the treatment of open-angle glaucoma.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. A high first-pass effect means that a significant amount of the drug is metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, making oral administration less effective.
B. Morphine with a high first-pass effect will be more effective when administered via non-enteral routes, such as IV or subcutaneous, to bypass the liver's initial metabolism.
C. The first-pass effect does not influence the kidney’s rate of excretion but rather the liver’s initial metabolism of the drug.
D. The liver, not the kidneys, is responsible for the first-pass metabolism, which occurs before the drug reaches systemic circulation when taken orally.

A. Shuffling gait B. Sudden onset of high fever C. Constant tapping of feet when sitting D. Twisting tongue movements

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. A shuffling gait is more commonly associated with parkinsonism, a side effect of antipsychotic medications, rather than tardive dyskinesia.
B. A sudden onset of high fever could indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a serious reaction to antipsychotic medications, not tardive dyskinesia.
C. Constant tapping of feet when sitting can indicate restlessness or akathisia, but it does not specifically represent tardive dyskinesia.
D. Twisting tongue movements are a classic manifestation of tardive dyskinesia, characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face, tongue, and extremities, which may develop after long-term use of antipsychotic medications like fluphenazine.

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The nurse is caring for a client with increased ocular pressure due to open-angle glaucoma. Which diuretic below is used specifically for open-angle glaucoma?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse reads in a drug information guide that PO morphine has a high first-pass effect. Which of the following would the nurse expect?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia which has been treated with fluphenazine for several years. Which of the following findings should the nurse document as manifestations of tardive dyskinesia (TD)?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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