The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with unstable angina who is prescribed metoprolol. The patient asks the nurse, "Why do I have to take this medication?" What response by the nurse is most accurate?

"This medication will decrease how hard your heart works."

"It is prescribed to dilate your coronary arteries."

"It will prevent any irregular heartbeats."

"This medication makes your heart beat more forcefully."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, decreases the heart rate and reduces myocardial oxygen demand by lowering the workload on the heart, which is beneficial for managing unstable angina.

B. While metoprolol has some vasodilatory effects, its primary action is to reduce heart workload, not to dilate coronary arteries.

C. Although beta-blockers can reduce the risk of arrhythmias, the main purpose in angina management is to decrease cardiac workload.

D. Metoprolol does not make the heart beat more forcefully; instead, it decreases the force of contraction to reduce myocardial oxygen consumption.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. A severe headache, often described as a "thunderclap" headache or the worst headache of the patient’s life, is a classic symptom of subarachnoid hemorrhage due to irritation of the meninges and increased intracranial pressure.

B. Generalized weakness may occur in some neurological conditions but is not a hallmark symptom of subarachnoid hemorrhage.

C. Gradual blurry vision is more associated with conditions like increased intracranial pressure or other eye-related issues rather than acute subarachnoid hemorrhage.

D. Chest pain is not typically associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage; it may indicate other conditions such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary issues.

A. Posterior cord injury B. Anterior cord injury C. Central cord injury D. Brown-Sequard injury

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Posterior cord injury usually affects proprioception rather than causing a distinctive pattern of motor and sensory loss.

B. Anterior cord injury generally impacts motor function and temperature and pain sensation bilaterally, not in a hemisection pattern.

C. Central cord injury primarily affects motor function in the upper extremities and is not characterized by ipsilateral motor and contralateral sensory loss.

D. Brown-Sequard syndrome typically presents with motor function loss on the same (ipsilateral) side of the injury and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite (contralateral) side, making this the most likely diagnosis.

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The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with unstable angina who is prescribed metoprolol. The patient asks the nurse, "Why do I have to take this medication?" What response by the nurse is most accurate?

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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