The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with unstable angina who is prescribed metoprolol. The patient asks the nurse, "Why do I have to take this medication?" What response by the nurse is most accurate?

"This medication will decrease how hard your heart works."

"It is prescribed to dilate your coronary arteries."

"It will prevent any irregular heartbeats."

"This medication makes your heart beat more forcefully."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, decreases the heart rate and reduces myocardial oxygen demand by lowering the workload on the heart, which is beneficial for managing unstable angina.

B. While metoprolol has some vasodilatory effects, its primary action is to reduce heart workload, not to dilate coronary arteries.

C. Although beta-blockers can reduce the risk of arrhythmias, the main purpose in angina management is to decrease cardiac workload.

D. Metoprolol does not make the heart beat more forcefully; instead, it decreases the force of contraction to reduce myocardial oxygen consumption.

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Correct Answer is ["3"]

Explanation

To administer the correct dose of clonidine, which is 0.3 mg, the nurse would need to calculate the number of 0.1 mg tablets required. Since each tablet contains 0.1 mg of clonidine, the nurse would need three tablets to make up the total dose of 0.3 mg. Therefore, the nurse should administer three tablets per dose to the patient.

A. Penicillin B. Aminoglycoside C. Fluoroquinolone D. Cephalosporin

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Penicillins are generally safe but are not specific for ototoxicity considerations.

B. Aminoglycosides are avoided in cases of tympanic membrane rupture due to their ototoxic potential, which can lead to hearing loss.

C. Fluoroquinolones, particularly those formulated for otic use, are preferred for tympanic membrane ruptures as they are not ototoxic and are safe for middle ear exposure.

D. Cephalosporins are not typically ototoxic but are less commonly used for tympanic membrane ruptures compared to fluoroquinolones.

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The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with unstable angina who is prescribed metoprolol. The patient asks the nurse, "Why do I have to take this medication?" What response by the nurse is most accurate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing to administer clonidine 0.3 mg at bedtime to a patient. The amount available is clonidine 0.1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct Answer is ["3"]

Explanation

The nurse anticipates which antibiotic class, due to the lack of ototoxicity, will be ordered for a patient diagnosed with tympanic membrane rupture?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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