The nurse is caring for a patient receiving packed red blood cells which started at 11:30 AM. The patient's vital signs and assessment findings are provided in the table below. What type of transfusion reaction will the nurse identify that the patient is experiencing?
Acute hemolytic
Allergic
Anaphylactic
Circulatory overload
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Acute hemolytic reactions are severe and typically present with symptoms such as fever, chills, flank pain, hemoglobinuria, and shock. The patient's mild symptoms of itching and a localized rash do not match the severe presentation of an acute hemolytic reaction.
Choice B reason: Allergic reactions to blood transfusions are common and usually present with symptoms such as itching, hives, and localized rash. The patient's vital signs and physical assessment showing mild itching and a rash on the arms are consistent with an allergic reaction.
Choice C reason: Anaphylactic reactions are severe allergic reactions that involve respiratory distress, hypotension, and shock. The patient's mild symptoms do not indicate an anaphylactic reaction.
Choice D reason: Circulatory overload presents with symptoms such as dyspnea, orthopnea, hypertension, and pulmonary edema. The patient's symptoms of itching and a rash do not align with circulatory overload.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering phosphate binders with meals is an essential intervention for managing renal osteodystrophy in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Renal osteodystrophy results from an imbalance of calcium and phosphate in the body due to impaired kidney function. Phosphate binders help reduce the absorption of phosphate from the diet, thereby lowering serum phosphate levels and preventing complications such as secondary hyperparathyroidism and bone disorders. This intervention helps maintain the proper balance of minerals, improving bone health and reducing the risk of fractures and other skeletal complications in CKD patients.
Choice B reason: Encouraging the patient to increase potassium-rich foods is not appropriate for managing renal osteodystrophy. Patients with CKD often need to limit their potassium intake because impaired kidney function can lead to hyperkalaemia (elevated potassium levels), which is potentially life-threatening. Instead of promoting potassium-rich foods, the focus should be on controlling phosphate and maintaining calcium levels.
Choice C reason: Monitoring calcium levels for signs of hypocalcaemia is important in CKD management, but it is not the primary intervention for renal osteodystrophy. While hypocalcaemia can occur in CKD due to disrupted vitamin D metabolism, addressing phosphate levels through the use of phosphate binders is a more targeted approach to managing renal osteodystrophy and preventing secondary hyperparathyroidism.
Choice D reason: Increasing fluid intake to 3 litters per day is generally not recommended for CKD patients, especially those with reduced urine output or fluid retention issues. Excessive fluid intake can lead to fluid overload, hypertension, and heart failure in CKD patients. The intervention should focus on phosphate control rather than fluid intake adjustments.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Normal blood pressure and deep respirations do not necessarily indicate that hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is resolving. Deep respirations, also known as Kussmaul respirations, can occur in response to severe hyperglycemia.
Choice B reason: Increased alertness and a normal heart rhythm suggest that the patient's neurological status and cardiovascular system are stabilizing, which are positive indicators that the treatment is effective in managing hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.
Choice C reason: High urine specific gravity and normal temperature do not directly indicate the effectiveness of treatment for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome. High urine specific gravity can result from dehydration.
Choice D reason: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL with disorientation still indicates poorly controlled hyperglycemia and ongoing metabolic disturbance, which means the treatment is not yet effective.
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