The nurse is discussing the client's pain management with a student nurse. Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statement(s) by selecting from the lists of options provided.
Morphine is a(n) dropdown and it activates dropdown receptors and is used to relieve dropdown .
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A","dropdown-group-3":"C"}
A. c. Pure opioid antagonist
Morphine is a pure opioid agonist, not an antagonist. Pure opioid agonists activate opioid receptors to relieve pain. This option is incorrect as it describes the opposite of morphine’s role in pain management.
B. a. Mu
Morphine primarily activates mu receptors to exert its effects. These receptors are involved in pain relief and are the main targets for morphine’s analgesic properties.
C. c. Severe pain
Morphine is used to manage severe pain due to its potent analgesic effects. It is not typically used for mild or moderate pain and is more effective for addressing intense pain.
Correct Answer Rationale:
A. c. Pure opioid agonist
Morphine is a pure opioid agonist that binds to opioid receptors to relieve pain. This medication effectively addresses severe pain by activating specific receptors in the central nervous system.
B. a. Mu
Morphine binds primarily to mu-opioid receptors, which are responsible for its pain-relieving effects. This receptor activation is crucial for morphine's role in managing severe pain.
C. c. Severe pain
Morphine is indicated for the treatment of severe pain, providing significant relief in cases where other pain management strategies are insufficient. It is not used for mild or moderate pain management
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Administer naloxone per PRN protocol: Naloxone is used for opioid overdoses, not for benzodiazepine withdrawal. Therefore, this action is not appropriate for managing symptoms of alprazolam withdrawal.
B. Obtain a serum drug screen: While a drug screen can provide information about substance use, the immediate priority is managing the client’s withdrawal symptoms, including the risk of seizures.
C. Instruct the family about withdrawal symptoms: While educating the family is important, it is not the immediate priority. Addressing acute symptoms and risks takes precedence in this situation.
D. Initiate seizure precautions: Severe agitation and tremors can escalate to seizures during benzodiazepine withdrawal. Initiating seizure precautions ensures the client's safety and addresses the immediate risks associated with withdrawal.
Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]
Explanation
A. Swollen hands: Swelling, particularly in the hands and face, can be a sign of preeclampsia due to increased blood pressure and fluid retention. It should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation.
B. Lack of appetite: While a lack of appetite may occur in pregnancy, it is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia. This symptom is more general and could be caused by a variety of factors.
C. Urinary frequency: Increased urinary frequency is common in pregnancy due to the growing uterus pressing on the bladder and is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia.
D. Chills and fever: These symptoms are not typical indicators of preeclampsia. They might suggest an infection or other condition, but they are not specifically associated with preeclampsia.
E. Headache: Severe or persistent headaches can be a sign of preeclampsia, as high blood pressure affects the vascular system and may lead to headaches. This should be reported to assess for potential preeclampsia.
F. Blurred vision: Blurred vision is a significant symptom of preeclampsia related to high blood pressure and potential damage to the blood vessels in the eyes. It is a key indicator that should be reported to the healthcare provider.
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