The nurse is reviewing the prescriptions for a client with severe pain from renal colic.
Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse implement first?

Low sodium, high calorie diet.

Increase fluid intake of 3 to 4 L/day.

Tamsulosin (Flomax) 0.4 mg p.o. daily.

Morphine sulfate (Morphine) 2 mg IV every 4 hours PRN.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale

A low sodium, high-calorie diet may improve overall health but does not address immediate severe pain from renal colic. Dietary modifications can have long-term benefits but are not first-line interventions for acute pain caused by kidney stones. Immediate pain relief is prioritized over dietary adjustments in this scenario.

Choice B rationale

Increasing fluid intake helps flush out kidney stones and prevent their formation. However, fluid intake does not provide immediate pain relief for renal colic. It is crucial in long-term management, but acute management prioritizes analgesics to address the client’s severe pain.

Choice C rationale

Tamsulosin relaxes the smooth muscles in the urinary tract, facilitating stone passage and reducing obstruction-related discomfort. While beneficial, it takes time to work and does not immediately relieve severe pain. It is not the first prescription to implement for acute pain management in renal colic.

Choice D rationale

Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that provides rapid relief for severe pain associated with renal colic. Administering morphine addresses the acute issue and allows for further interventions to manage the underlying cause. Pain control is the priority in renal colic cases with severe pain.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Trouble breathing is a hallmark symptom of left-sided heart failure. Suggesting that it should not occur would be inaccurate. The failure of the left ventricle leads to blood accumulation in the pulmonary vessels, creating pulmonary congestion and shortness of breath. Prompt provider notification may be necessary but does not address the underlying pathophysiology. Pulmonary symptoms are expected in this type of heart failure.

Choice B rationale

While left-sided heart failure can eventually lead to right-sided heart failure, the initial problem is with left ventricular dysfunction. This causes reduced forward blood flow and pulmonary congestion due to backflow of blood into the lungs. Right-sided heart failure is not the primary event leading to pulmonary symptoms in left-sided heart failure.

Choice C rationale

The left ventricle's inability to pump effectively results in blood backing up into the pulmonary circulation, causing pulmonary congestion and symptoms like shortness of breath. This is consistent with the hemodynamics of left-sided heart failure. Pulmonary capillary pressure increases, leading to fluid leakage and impaired gas exchange, explaining the client's breathing difficulty.

Choice D rationale

Although difficulty breathing with exertion (dyspnea on exertion) is common, resting symptoms, including orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, can also occur in left-sided heart failure due to fluid redistribution. Limiting symptoms to exertion inaccurately portrays the clinical presentation and disregards other significant pulmonary signs.

A. Edema of the lower extremities. B. Pulmonary crackles auscultated. C. Ascites. D. Jugular vein distention.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Edema of the lower extremities suggests right-sided heart failure, not left ventricular failure. Fluid backs up into systemic circulation in right-sided failure, while left-sided failure primarily affects pulmonary circulation. Differentiating between these conditions is essential for targeted management.

Choice B rationale

Pulmonary crackles result from fluid accumulation in alveoli due to left ventricular failure, where decreased cardiac output causes blood to back up into pulmonary vasculature. Crackles indicate pulmonary congestion or edema. Prompt identification aids in early intervention. Normal respiratory assessment excludes crackles.

Choice C rationale

Ascites is more indicative of chronic right-sided heart failure or liver disease, not acute left ventricular failure. Ascites results from systemic venous congestion, which is less common in isolated left-sided heart failure. Differentiating causes helps refine diagnostic focus.

Choice D rationale

Jugular vein distention is associated with elevated central venous pressure, typical of right-sided heart failure or combined heart failure. It does not specifically characterize left ventricular failure. Accurate recognition of findings ensures precise diagnosis and management.

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The nurse is reviewing the prescriptions for a client with severe pain from renal colic.Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse implement first?

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Correct Answer is C

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Correct Answer is B

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The nurse is reviewing the prescriptions for a client with severe pain from renal colic.
Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse implement first?