The nurse is preparing to administer a narcotic analgesic to a client with a fractured femur who also has obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Remove dentures or other oral appliance.

Elevate the head of the bed to a 45-degree angle.

Lift and lock the side rails in place.

Apply the client's positive airway pressure device.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Removing dentures or other oral appliances is not directly related to managing obstructive sleep apnea. While it may be necessary for certain procedures or assessments, it does not address the client's OSA during narcotic administration.

B. Elevating the head of the bed to a 45-degree angle is a standard practice to prevent aspiration during narcotic administration, but it does not specifically address the client's obstructive sleep apnea.

C. Lifting and locking the side rails in place is important for client safety but does not directly address the client's obstructive sleep apnea.

D. Applying the client's positive airway pressure (PAP) device is crucial for managing obstructive sleep apnea, especially when administering a narcotic analgesic, which can further depress respiratory function. The PAP device helps maintain airway patency and prevent apneic episodes, reducing the risk of respiratory complications in clients with OSA.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Providing counseling about contraceptives may not address the immediate concern of managing genital herpes or the risks associated with multiple sexual partners.
B. Remaining non-judgmental and assuring the client of confidentiality is crucial to establishing trust and ensuring open communication. This approach encourages the client to share accurate information about their sexual history and current concerns, which is essential for effective STI management and prevention.
C. Informing the client that complications will not result from reinfection is inaccurate and may minimize the seriousness of the STI. Genital herpes can cause recurrent outbreaks and potentially lead to complications such as neonatal herpes if transmitted to a newborn during childbirth.

D. Clarifying that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse is true but does not address the client's specific situation or provide guidance on managing genital herpes and reducing the risk of transmission.

A. Digoxin. B. Hydrochlorothiazide. C. Nadolol. D. Captopril.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Digoxin.
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that helps increase the force of myocardial contraction and is generally used to treat heart failure. It does not typically pose a significant risk for cardiogenic shock.

B. Hydrochlorothiazide.
Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention in heart failure. It can cause electrolyte imbalances but is not directly linked to causing cardiogenic shock.

C. Nadolol.
Nadolol is a beta-blocker, which can reduce the heart rate and the strength of heart contractions. In a client with severe heart failure, excessive beta-blockade can lead to a significant decrease in cardiac output, increasing the risk for cardiogenic shock.

D. Captopril.
Captopril is an ACE inhibitor that helps manage heart failure by reducing afterload and preload.
While it can cause hypotension, it is not typically associated with a direct risk of cardiogenic shock.

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The nurse is preparing to administer a narcotic analgesic to a client with a fractured femur who also has obstructive sleep apnea (OSA). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client with the sexually transmitted infection (STI) genital herpes. The client reports having sex with multiple partners. Which response should the nurse provide?

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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