The nurse is preparing to administer the vitamin K injection to a newborn. Which action would be correct for this client?
Using a 21 gauge needle.
Injecting at a 45-degree angle.
Injecting 1cc of medication.
Injecting the medication into the vastus lateralis.
The Correct Answer is D
Injecting the medication into the vastus lateralis. This is because the vastus lateralis is a large muscle in the thigh that is suitable for intramuscular injections in newborns³. The vitamin K injection helps prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding, which is a rare but serious condition that can cause bleeding in the brain or other organs¹. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that all newborns receive a single intramuscular dose of 0.5 to 1 mg of vitamin K within one hour of birth².
Choice A is wrong because a 21 gauge needle is too large for a newborn's muscle. A 25 or 27 gauge needle is more appropriate.
Choice B is wrong because injecting at a 45-degree angle may not reach the muscle tissue. A 90-degree angle is more appropriate.
Choice C is wrong because injecting 1cc of medication is too much for a newborn's muscle. The recommended dose of vitamin K is 0.5 to 1 mg, which is equivalent to 0.05 to 0.1 mL.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Asymmetrical chest movement is a sign of respiratory distress in the newborn, as it indicates unequal lung expansion or airway obstruction. A respiratory rate of 50 breaths/minute (choice B) is normal for a newborn, as is acrocyanosis (choice C), which is a bluish discoloration of the hands and feet due to immature peripheral circulation. Short periods of apnea (less than 15 seconds) (choice D) are also common and benign in newborns unless they are associated with bradycardia or cyanosis.
Choice B is not correct because a respiratory rate of 50 breaths/minute is within the normal range for a newborn.
Choice C is not correct because acrocyanosis is a normal finding in newborns and does not indicate respiratory distress.
Choice D is not correct because short periods of apnea (less than 15 seconds) are normal in newborns and do not indicate respiratory distress.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Precipitous birth
This is because precipitous birth, which is defined as a labor that lasts less than three hours from the onset of contractions to delivery, is a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. This is because the uterus may not contract well after a rapid delivery, leading to uterine atony and bleeding. Other risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage include uterine overdistension, oxytocin use, placental abruption, placenta previa, infection, coagulation disorders, and previous history of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice A is not correct because gestational hypertension is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy and can lead to complications such as preeclampsia, eclampsia, and placental abruption³.
Choice B is not correct because small for gestational age newborn is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that indicates that the baby's growth was restricted in the womb and weighs less than 90% of other babies of the same gestational age. It can be caused by maternal factors, placental factors, or fetal factors⁴.
Choice C is not correct because a two-vessel umbilical cord is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that occurs when the umbilical cord has only one artery and one vein instead of the normal two arteries and one vein. It can be associated with congenital anomalies, intrauterine growth restriction, and stillbirth.
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