The nurse is preparing to administer warfarin sodium 10 mg PO to a client whose international normalized ratio (INR) is 5.0. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Reference Range:

International 1 normalized ratio (INR) [INR: 0.8 to 1.1]

Administer the scheduled dose.

Discontinue the warfarin schedule.

Withhold warfarin for 24 hours

Obtain another INR analysis immediately.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) Administer the scheduled dose: Administering the scheduled dose of warfarin when the INR is 5.0 is not appropriate because this INR level is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding. Warfarin dosing should be adjusted based on INR levels to prevent complications such as excessive bleeding.
B) Discontinue the warfarin schedule: Completely discontinuing warfarin may not be necessary unless there are additional factors or signs of bleeding. It is essential to take appropriate action based on the INR level, but discontinuation should be guided by further evaluation and healthcare provider recommendations.
C) Withhold warfarin for 24 hours: Withholding the dose of warfarin is the correct action when faced with an elevated INR of 5.0. This intervention is crucial to prevent potential bleeding complications while waiting for further evaluation and guidance from the healthcare provider regarding additional management, such as administration of vitamin K or other reversal agents.

D) Obtain another INR analysis immediately: While obtaining another INR analysis can be helpful in monitoring trends, it is not the immediate priority if the INR is already 5.0. The primary action should be to withhold the dose and consult with the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate next steps for managing the elevated INR and ensuring patient safety.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Pull up 30 units from the 70/30 vial, but only administer one third: The 70/30 insulin vial contains a mixture of 70% isophane (NPH) insulin and 30% regular insulin. If 30 units of this mixture are drawn, the actual amount of regular insulin would be 30% of 30 units, which equals 9 units. This does not equate to the 10 units of regular insulin required, making this option inaccurate for precise dosing.
B) Withdraw ten units regular insulin from the 70/30 vial: The 70/30 vial provides a fixed ratio of regular to NPH insulin. Extracting 10 units from this vial would not yield exactly 10 units of regular insulin; instead, it would include both types in the specified ratio, leading to an incorrect dosage of regular insulin.
C) Withhold the dose until insulin regular is available on the unit: Since the 70/30 vial contains a mixture and not solely regular insulin, it is necessary to withhold the dose until a vial of regular insulin is available. This ensures that the precise amount of regular insulin needed is administered, avoiding the imprecision and potential errors that could arise from using a mixed insulin vial.
D) Obtain a new vial of regular insulin and withdraw ten units: While obtaining a new vial of regular insulin is the correct approach for ensuring accurate dosing, the option of withdrawing ten units directly from a vial of regular insulin is not feasible if the current medication available is a mixture. This option assumes that the correct type of insulin is already available for use.

A. Chronotropic effect. B. Diuresis C. Vasodilation. D. Sympatholytic action.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Chronotropic effect: This term refers to changes in heart rate. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists like valsartan primarily affect blood pressure and vascular tone, rather than directly altering heart rate.
B) Diuresis: Diuresis involves increased urine production. Although some antihypertensives can have a diuretic effect, valsartan primarily works through mechanisms other than increasing urine output.
C) Vasodilation: Angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as valsartan work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, which leads to vasodilation. This reduction in vascular resistance helps to lower blood pressure and is the primary therapeutic effect of valsartan.
D) Sympatholytic action: This refers to the suppression of sympathetic nervous system activity. Valsartan does not primarily act through sympathetic nervous system modulation but rather through direct vasodilation by blocking angiotensin II receptors.

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The nurse is preparing to administer warfarin sodium 10 mg PO to a client whose international normalized ratio (INR) is 5.0. Which intervention should the nurse implement? Reference Range: International 1 normalized ratio (INR) [INR: 0.8 to 1.1]

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Based on the capillary glucose measurement, a client is to receive 10 units of regular insulin. The client's medication drawer contains one vial of a 70/30 mixture of regular Insulin and Isophane insulin How should the nurse prepare the prescribed dose?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is administering the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan. Which physiological response causes its therapeutic effect?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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The nurse is preparing to administer warfarin sodium 10 mg PO to a client whose international normalized ratio (INR) is 5.0. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Reference Range:

International 1 normalized ratio (INR) [INR: 0.8 to 1.1]