The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 76-year-old male client with chronic atrial fibrillation who has a CHA2DS2-VASC score of 2. Which medication would the nurse identify as most likely to be prescribed for the client?

Propranolol

Procainamide

Aspirin

Warfarin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Propranolol: This is a beta-blocker, which may be used to control heart rate, but it does not address the risk of thromboembolism in atrial fibrillation.

B. Procainamide: This is an antiarrhythmic used for rhythm control, but it does not address stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation.

C. Aspirin: Although aspirin is sometimes used for stroke prevention, it is generally less effective than anticoagulation therapy in clients with higher CHA2DS2-VASC scores.

D. Warfarin: A CHA2DS2-VASC score of 2 indicates a moderate risk for stroke, and warfarin (or another anticoagulant) is indicated to reduce the risk of thromboembolic events.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Auscultate for a pericardial friction rub: These symptoms are classic for pericarditis, a complication of MI. A pericardial friction rub is a key diagnostic finding.

B. Inspect the skin for petechiae: Petechiae are associated with conditions like infective endocarditis or thrombocytopenia, not pericarditis.

C. Palpate the radial pulses bilaterally: Assessing radial pulses is essential for circulation but does not directly relate to pericarditis symptoms.

D. Assess for abdominal pain: Abdominal pain is not typical of pericarditis and would not be the priority assessment.

A. The client is able to sit erect without assistance B. The client is able to move fingers slightly C. The client is displaying shallow respirations D. The client is able to speak in full sentences

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. The client is able to sit erect without assistance: This suggests a lower level injury, likely below C-2, as higher injuries often result in paralysis of respiratory muscles.

B. The client is able to move fingers slightly: This would be indicative of a higher level injury, but C-1 to C-2 injuries typically result in complete paralysis below the neck.

C. The client is displaying shallow respirations: Injuries at the C-1 or C-2 level can affect the diaphragm and the ability to breathe deeply, leading to shallow respirations.

D. The client is able to speak in full sentences: A C-1 to C-2 injury would likely affect the ability to speak, as it could impair the phrenic nerve and respiratory muscles needed for adequate breathing and speech.

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The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 76-year-old male client with chronic atrial fibrillation who has a CHA2DS2-VASC score of 2. Which medication would the nurse identify as most likely to be prescribed for the client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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