The nurse is providing education to a patient who has been prescribed both an antacid and ranitidine (an H2 receptor blocker). Which instruction should the nurse give the patient about taking the medications?

Take the antacid 1 hour after the ranitidine.

The antacid and ranitidine should be taken at the same time for better effect.

Take both medications at the same time before meals.

Patient can't take both of these medications and needs to be on one of these medications only.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason:
Taking an antacid one hour after ranitidine is recommended because antacids can affect the absorption of H2 receptor blockers like ranitidine. Ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, whereas antacids neutralize existing acid. Taking the antacid too close to the ranitidine can reduce the effectiveness of the ranitidine by altering the stomach's pH balance and affecting its absorption.

Choice B reason:
Taking an antacid and ranitidine at the same time does not enhance their effect. In fact, this can interfere with the absorption and effectiveness of ranitidine. Antacids can increase the pH of the stomach, which may reduce the absorption of ranitidine, thus diminishing its acid-reducing effects.

Choice C reason:
Taking both medications at the same time before meals is not advisable for the same reason as above. The simultaneous administration can reduce the effectiveness of ranitidine, as the increased pH caused by the antacid can interfere with the absorption of the H2 receptor blocker, thereby not providing the intended therapeutic effect.

Choice D reason:
The patient can take both medications, but they should be timed correctly to ensure optimal effectiveness. Saying that the patient needs to be on one medication only is incorrect. Both medications can be used together, but the antacid should be taken after ranitidine to avoid any interaction that might impair the effectiveness of ranitidine.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Holding the heparin and notifying the provider is the appropriate action. The significant drop in platelet count suggests the possibility of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious complication of heparin therapy. Immediate discontinuation of heparin and further evaluation are necessary to manage this condition.

Choice B reason:
Requesting an order for vitamin K (phytonadione) is not appropriate in this scenario. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. The issue here is the potential for HIT, not an over-anticoagulation that requires vitamin K.

Choice C reason:
While requesting a PTT test is part of managing anticoagulation therapy, it is not the immediate priority in this case. The significant drop in platelet count is more concerning for HIT, which requires stopping heparin and notifying the provider for further evaluation.

Choice D reason:
Administering oxygen and notifying the provider is not specific to managing the issue of a significantly low platelet count in a patient on heparin. The primary concern here is the potential for HIT, which necessitates stopping the heparin.

A. There is an infusion reaction to Amphotericin B B. Infusions of Amphotericin B should be administered rapidly C. The IV site should be rotated frequently to reduce the risk of phlebitis or use bigger vein for the treatment like central line D. Amphotericin B is for treatment of fungal infection

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Amphotericin B is known to cause infusion reactions, including fever, chills, and rigors. These reactions are common and expected when administering this medication. Therefore, the statement that there is an infusion reaction to Amphotericin B is correct and does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Choice B reason:
This choice is incorrect because infusions of Amphotericin B should not be administered rapidly. Rapid infusion can increase the risk of severe side effects and adverse reactions. The drug should be administered slowly to minimize these risks. Thus, this statement indicates a need for further teaching.
Choice C reason:
Rotating the IV site frequently or using a larger vein, such as a central line, is a standard practice to reduce the risk of phlebitis, a common complication of Amphotericin B treatment. This statement is correct and does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Choice D reason:
Amphotericin B is indeed used for the treatment of systemic fungal infections. This statement is factually accurate and does not suggest any misunderstanding on the part of the nursing student. Therefore, it does not indicate a need for further teaching.

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The nurse is providing education to a patient who has been prescribed both an antacid and ranitidine (an H2 receptor blocker). Which instruction should the nurse give the patient about taking the medications?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse caring for a patient receiving heparin therapy notes that the patient has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 90/62 mm Hg. A stat CBC shows a platelet count of less than 50,000, which is a low platelet count. The previous platelet level was 375,000. The nurse will:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Anurse is discussing intravenous Amphotericin B treatment with a nursing student who is about to care for a patient with a systemic fungal infection. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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