The nurse is providing sexual education to a group of high school students. What will the nurse explain is the most effective choice of birth control for preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted diseases?
Select one:
Use the barrier method.
Abstain from sex.
Use the female condom.
Use the male condom.
Use the male condom.
The Correct Answer is B
a. The barrier method, which includes male and female condoms, diaphragms, and cervical caps, is effective at preventing pregnancy but may not provide adequate protection against sexually transmitted diseases.
b. Abstaining from sex is the only surefire way to prevent both pregnancy and sexually transmitted diseases.
c. The female condom can provide some protection against pregnancy, but may not provide adequate protection against sexually transmitted diseases.
d. The male condom can provide some protection against pregnancy, but may not provide adequate protection against sexually transmitted diseases.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a. A woman at 37 weeks' gestation who experienced spontaneous rupture of membranes 30 minutes ago with normal fetal movements is not a priority assessment as long as there are no signs of fetal distress.
b. A woman who is 9 cm dilated and fully effaced and is requesting to go to the bathroom to have a bowel movement is in the second stage of labor, which means that the cervix is fully dilated and the fetus is descending in the birth canal. The urge to have a bowel movement is a sign that the fetal head is pressing on the rectum and that delivery is imminent. This patient needs immediate attention and preparation for delivery.
c. A woman at 27 weeks' gestation who noted scant vaginal bleeding today after having sexual intercourse in the morning may be experiencing placenta previa or placental abruption but this is not a priority compared to the woman in option b who is yet to deliver.
d. A woman who is 2 cm dilated and 80% effaced and is crying and shows mild anxiety is not a priority assessment as long as there are no signs of fetal distress.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
a. Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods, is a presumptive sign of pregnancy that occurs around the time of implantation of the fertilized egg.
b. A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy that can occur as early as 7-10 days after conception.
c. Chadwick's sign, or the bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina, is a probable sign of pregnancy that typically occurs around 6-8 weeks of gestation.
d. Hegar's sign, or the softening of the lower uterine segment, is a probable sign of pregnancy that typically occurs around 6-12 weeks of gestation.
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