The nurse is administering Terbutaline (Brethine) to a pregnant woman to stop preterm labor. Which finding indicates an adverse reaction and the Physician must be notified?
Select one:
Maternal hypotension
Pulmonary edema.
Fetal bradycardia
Fetal hypokalemia
Fetal hypokalemia
The Correct Answer is B
a. Maternal hypotension is not a common side effect of terbutaline, which is a beta-adrenergic agonist that can cause tachycardia and hypertension.
b. Pulmonary edema is a serious complication of terbutaline therapy, which can cause fluid overload, dyspnea, chest pain, and crackles in the lungs. The nurse should monitor the woman's vital signs, oxygen saturation, urine output, and lung sounds, and report any signs of pulmonary edema to the physician immediately.
c. Fetal bradycardia is not related to terbutaline, which can cause fetal tachycardia.
d. Fetal hypokalemia is also not associated with terbutaline, which can cause maternal hypokalemia due to increased potassium uptake by the cells.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
a. The nonstress test is considered reactive if there are two or more accelerations of the fetal heart rate (FHR) in a 20-minute period, lasting 15 seconds or longer and peaking at least 15 beats per minute above the baseline. The FHR baseline is between 110 and 160 beats per minute, with moderate variability. The test is considered nonreactive if these criteria are not met.
b. Turning the client onto her left side is not necessary, as the test is already reactive.
c. Encouraging the client to walk around is not necessary, as the test is already reactive.
d. Notifying the client's provider and preparing for induction of labor is not necessary, as the test is already reactive.
e. Offering the client a snack of orange juice is not necessary, as the test is already reactive.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a. This is not the correct choice because the woman has signs of magnesium toxicity, such as low urine output, high blood pressure, and increased DTR. Continuing the infusion could worsen her condition and put her and the fetus at risk.
b. This is the correct choice because the woman needs to be treated for magnesium toxicity, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Stopping the infusion will prevent further accumulation of magnesium in her body and allow her to excrete the excess.
c. This is not the correct choice because it will delay the treatment of magnesium toxicity, which is a medical emergency. The woman's vital signs and symptoms are enough to indicate that she has a high level of magnesium and needs immediate intervention.
d. This is not the correct choice because it will not address the underlying cause of magnesium toxicity, which is the infusion. Oxygen may help with some symptoms, such as respiratory depression, but it will not reverse the effects of magnesium on the nervous system and blood vessels.
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