The nurse notes in the patient’s medication orders that the patient will be starting anticoagulant therapy. What is the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy?
Stabilizing an existing thrombus
Dilating the vessel around the clot
Preventing thrombus formation
Dissolving existing thrombus
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Stabilizing an existing thrombus is not the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy, which focuses on preventing new clot formation. Thrombolytics dissolve clots, while anticoagulants inhibit clotting factors, making this incorrect, as prevention, not stabilization, is the main therapeutic objective.
Choice B reason: Dilating vessels is not an effect of anticoagulants, which inhibit clotting factors to prevent thrombus formation. Vasodilation is achieved by other drugs like nitrates, making this incorrect, as it does not align with the mechanism or goal of anticoagulant therapy.
Choice C reason: The primary goal of anticoagulant therapy is to prevent thrombus formation by inhibiting clotting factors, reducing the risk of thromboembolism in conditions like atrial fibrillation or DVT. This aligns with the therapeutic purpose, making it the correct goal for the nurse to understand.
Choice D reason: Dissolving existing thrombi is the role of thrombolytic therapy, not anticoagulants, which prevent new clots. Anticoagulants like heparin maintain clot stability but do not lyse clots, making this incorrect, as prevention is the primary focus of anticoagulant therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Calcium gluconate treats hypocalcemia or hyperkalemia, not heparin overdose. Heparin enhances antithrombin, prolonging clotting time, causing bleeding. Calcium does not reverse this anticoagulant effect, making it an incorrect choice for managing profuse bleeding in a patient on heparin therapy.
Choice B reason: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, binding to it and neutralizing its anticoagulant effect, rapidly reversing bleeding. In a trauma patient with profuse bleeding, this is critical to restore clotting and prevent hypovolemic shock, making it the most likely medication to administer.
Choice C reason: Enoxaparin, a low-molecular-weight heparin, is an anticoagulant, not an antidote. Administering it would worsen bleeding in a patient already on heparin. Protamine sulfate is needed to reverse heparin’s effect, making enoxaparin an incorrect choice for this emergency scenario.
Choice D reason: Vitamin K reverses warfarin, not heparin, by promoting clotting factor synthesis. Heparin’s immediate anticoagulant effect requires protamine sulfate for rapid neutralization. Vitamin K is ineffective in this context, making it an incorrect choice for managing acute bleeding in a heparinized patient.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: An elevated platelet count does not indicate warfarin overdose, which prolongs clotting time by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent factors, not platelet function. Normal or low platelets may cause bleeding, but INR is the key indicator, making this incorrect for assessing overdose.
Choice B reason: Elevated aPTT reflects heparin’s effect, not warfarin, which primarily affects prothrombin time and INR. While bleeding may occur, aPTT is not the primary test for warfarin overdose, making this incorrect, as INR directly monitors warfarin’s anticoagulant effect and overdose risk.
Choice C reason: An elevated lipid panel is unrelated to warfarin overdose, which causes bleeding by inhibiting clotting factors. Lipid levels affect atherosclerosis, not coagulation, making this incorrect, as INR is the specific test to assess warfarin’s therapeutic and overdose effects in bleeding patients.
Choice D reason: An elevated INR level indicates warfarin overdose, as warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, prolonging prothrombin time and increasing bleeding risk like bruising and nosebleeds. Monitoring INR is critical, making this the correct test to identify overdose in this patient.
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